RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 27 Nov 2025 - 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM

When naphthalene (a hydrocarbon) burns in open space, it undergoes incomplete combustion due to insufficient oxygen. This results in a yellow flame from the production of carbon particles (soot) and carbon monoxide, along with carbon dioxide and water. The soot deposits on the metal plate. Option C describes this, while A and D assume complete combustion (blue flame, no soot), which doesn't occur here. B incorrectly associates a blue flame with soot formation.

The activity series arranges metals by their reactivity. Highly reactive metals like potassium (A) and sodium (C) are at the top, while less reactive ones like gold (B) are at the bottom. Iron (D) is in the middle, as it can displace metals below it (e.g., copper) but not those above (e.g., zinc). So, D is correct. A and C are too reactive, and B is too unreactive to be in the middle.

Work done is calculated as force � displacement � cosθ, where θ is the angle between force and displacement. If the force opposes displacement (θ > 90°), work is negative. If they are in the same direction (θ < 90°), work is positive. So, D is correct. A is false because work depends on both force and displacement. B and C are incorrect as work can be either positive or negative.

In poultry farming, 'layers' (A) specifically refer to hens bred for egg production, distinguishing them from 'broilers' (C), which are raised for meat. Common carp (B) is a fish, and milch (D) refers to dairy animals like cows. So, A is correct. B, C, and D are unrelated to egg production in birds.

Chlorenchyma (D) is a plant tissue containing chloroplasts, which are essential for photosynthesis. Phloem (A) transports sugars, xylem (C) transports water, and sclerenchyma (B) provides structural support. Only chlorenchyma directly performs photosynthesis, so option D is correct. A, B, and C describe non-photosynthetic tissues.

Zinc is more reactive than copper, so it displaces copper from copper sulphate solution (a single displacement reaction). This causes the blue colour (from Cu²� ions) to fade as copper metal forms. D correctly describes this. A is incorrect as the reaction is exothermic, not endothermic. B is false because a reaction clearly occurs. C is unnecessary, as no external heat is required.

Key point: the asexual reproduction methods in algae. Fragmentation (C) is correct because algae rapidly multiply by breaking into pieces, each growing into a new organism. Pollination (A) involves pollen transfer, unrelated to algae. Spore formation (B) is a method used by fungi, not primarily algae. Budding (D) is seen in yeast, not typical for algae growth.

To find power (P), use the formula P = V²/R. Given V = 220 V and R = 44 Ω, calculate: P = (220)^2 / 44 = 48400 / 44 = 1100 W. So, option D is correct. Common mistakes might use P = IV without calculating current first, but direct substitution avoids errors.

Statement 1 is correct as voltage is measured in volts. Statement 2 incorrectly defines 1 volt as 1 N/C; the correct definition is 1 J/C. So, only Statement 1 is correct (B). The distractor (A) wrongly assumes both are accurate, but the definition in Statement 2 is flawed.

Culture Fishery refers to fish farming (C), which involves cultivating fish in controlled environments like ponds. Options A and D refer to capturing fish from artificial or natural sources, which is fishing, not culture. Option B specifies marine water, which is too narrow compared to the broader concept of farming.

Volume by Mass percentage (C) is not a standard concentration measure. Common methods include mass by mass (B), volume by volume (A), and mass by volume (D). The incorrect option (C) mixes volume and mass in the denominator and numerator, which is non-standard and not typically used.

Meiosis (D) reduces diploid cells to haploid gametes, essential for sexual reproduction. Mitosis (C) produces diploid daughter cells, not gametes. Amitosis (A) is a less common, direct cell division without stages. Binary fission (B) is a prokaryotic process, not related to gamete formation.

Key point: the cleansing action of soap, which relies on micelle formation. Soap molecules form micelles around oil and dirt particles, trapping them so they can be rinsed away. Option B describes this role. Option A refers to water softening, which is not the primary function of micelles. Option C mentions lather production, a byproduct of soap action but not the main role of micelles. Option D is incorrect because soap reduces surface tension, enabling it to act as a cleansing agent.

The power of a lens is defined by the formula P = 1/f, where f is the focal length in meters. This makes option A correct. Option B incorrectly introduces refractive index, which relates to lens material but not directly to power definition. Option C confuses power with unrelated mathematical operations on focal length. Option D describes magnification, not lens power, and is therefore incorrect.

Using the equation v = u + gt, where initial velocity u = 0 (since the body is dropped), g = 10 m/s², and t = 3.0 s, we calculate v = 0 + 10*3 = 30 m/s. This matches option B. Option A would result from doubling the time or acceleration. Option C assumes half the time or acceleration. Option D ignores the time factor entirely.

Chlorine's fractional atomic mass arises from the existence of isotopes, which are atoms of the same element with different mass numbers due to varying neutron counts. This natural occurrence averages out to a fractional value, so option A is correct. Options B, C, and D are irrelevant to isotopic abundance and do not explain the fractional mass.

DNA replication is crucial for inheritance, ensuring that offspring receive genetic material from parents. Option B addresses this. Options A, C, and D refer to physiological processes unrelated to genetic inheritance, making them incorrect in this context.

Option C is marked correct. For this Physics question on Waves, revise the basic principle and check which option matches the definition, process, or example asked in the question.

The Law of Constant Proportions states that a chemical compound always contains the same elements in fixed mass proportions. Option B states this principle, making it correct. Option A refers to the Law of Conservation of Mass, which is a different concept. Options C and D are incorrect as they contradict basic atomic theory and the definition of compounds, respectively.

In uniform circular motion, speed is constant but velocity changes direction continuously, causing centripetal acceleration. Option D identifies this directional change as the reason for non-zero acceleration. Option A confuses speed with velocity, while B and C introduce irrelevant concepts (energy conservation, mass change) not applicable to uniform circular motion.

Uniform circular motion involves constant speed with changing direction. Option C, a fan blade rotating at constant speed, exemplifies this as each point on the blade undergoes continuous directional change. Options A and B describe linear motion (constant or accelerated), while D involves vertical motion with speed changes, not uniform circular motion.

Asthma primarily affects the bronchi and bronchioles, where inflammation and constriction occur, obstructing airflow. Option C is correct. The alveoli (A) are involved in gas exchange but not primarily affected in asthma. The diaphragm (B) aids breathing but isn't directly impacted, and the trachea (D) is the windpipe, not the main site of asthma attacks.

The apparent raising of letters under a glass slab is due to refraction, which bends light at the air-glass interface, shifting the image position. Option A is correct. Scattering (B) and polarization (D) do not explain this phenomenon, and total internal reflection (C) requires specific conditions not met here.

Sexual reproduction introduces genetic variation through meiosis and fertilization, crucial for species adaptation. Option C is correct. Transportation (A) and nutrition types (B, D) are essential life processes but do not directly contribute to genetic diversity, making them incorrect choices.

Key point: identifying functional groups based on their heteroatoms. Carboxylic acids (A), ketones (B), and alcohols (C) all contain oxygen as a key heteroatom. Haloalkanes (D) have a halogen (e.g., Cl, Br) as the heteroatom instead of oxygen, making them the correct answer. Students must recall the defining elements of each functional group to eliminate other choices.

The mode is the value that appears most frequently. In the dataset, 85 occurs four times, more than any other number. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because 87, 84, and 83 do not occur as frequently as 85. This tests the ability to identify the mode from a list of numbers, emphasizing attention to frequency.

Let A's work rate be 'a' and B's be 'b'. Working together, their combined rate is 1/6. B alone takes 12 days, so b = 1/12. So, a + 1/12 = 1/6 � a = 1/12. A's rate is 1/12 per day, so A alone takes 12 days for single work. For double the work, time = 12 * 2 = 24 days. The correct answer is B; others misapply rate calculations.

Let TV cost �100. Washing machine (WM) costs �60. After changes: WM increases by 52% � 60 * 1.52 = �91.2. TV decreases by 76% � 100 * 0.24 = �24. Original total for 5WM + 2TV = 5*60 + 2*100 = �500. New total = 5*91.2 + 2*24 = �456 + �48 = �504. Percentage change = (504 - 500)/500 * 100 = 0.8% increase. Option C is correct; others miscalculate the final total or percentage change.

To find the area of the pentagon, apply the shoelace formula. List the coordinates in order: P(0,0), Q(6,0), R(8,3), S(4,7), T(0,4), and back to P(0,0). Calculate the sum of products of coordinates going one way and subtract the sum going the other way, then take half the absolute value. After calculations, the area is 39 sq. units. Option B is correct; errors may arise from incorrect multiplication or missing steps in the formula.

To find an equivalent ratio to 3:2, check if the options can be simplified to 3:2. Option C, 54:36, divides both terms by 18 to get 3:2. Other options do not simplify to 3:2 (e.g., 51:37 cannot be reduced to 3:2). This tests simplification of ratios, a fundamental concept in proportion problems.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Algebra, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Key point: average speed for a round trip. Since the distances are equal, average speed = 2 * (v1 * v2) / (v1 + v2). Here, v1 = 21 km/hr, v2 = 69 km/hr. Calculate: 2 * (21 * 69) / (21 + 69) = 2 * 1449 / 90 = 2898 / 90 = 32.2 km/hr. This matches option B. The other choices likely result from incorrect harmonic mean calculations or arithmetic errors.

Key point: profit percentage calculation. Let the cost price of 150 mangoes be Rs. 150. The selling price of 120 mangoes equals the cost price of 150, so SP of 120 = Rs. 150. So, SP of 1 mango = 150/120 = Rs. 1.25. Total SP for 150 mangoes = 1.25 * 150 = Rs. 187.5. Profit = 187.5 - 150 = Rs. 37.5. Profit percentage = (37.5 / 150) * 100 = 25%. This matches option B. The other choices arise from incorrect SP calculations or percentage formula misuse.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Mensuration, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Key point: average age calculation. Total age of 26 students = 26 * 26 = 676 years. With the teacher, total age = 27 * 27 = 729 years. Teacher's age = 729 - 676 = 53 years. This matches option D. The other choices arise from incorrect total age calculations or miscounting the number of individuals.

Key point: relative speed. First, find the train's speed. It overtakes a man moving at 5 km/hr in 45 seconds. Convert units: 5 km/hr = 5/3.6 = 1.3889 m/s. Distance covered = 325 m. Relative speed = 325 / 45 � 7.222 m/s. Train's speed = 7.222 + 1.3889 � 8.611 m/s = 31 km/hr. When crossing the 440 m train moving in the opposite direction at 20 km/hr = 5.5556 m/s, relative speed = 8.611 + 5.5556 � 14.166 m/s. Total distance = 325 + 440 = 765 m. Time = 765 / 14.166 � 54 seconds. This matches option A. The other choices result from incorrect relative speed calculations or unit conversion errors.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on HCF and LCM, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Marked price = 8900 + 40% of 8900 = 8900 � 1.4 = 12460. Selling price = 12460 - 5% of 12460 = 12460 � 0.95 = 11837. Profit = 11837 - 8900 = 2937. Profit percentage = (2937/8900) � 100 � 33%. Option C is correct as calculations confirm 33%. Others are incorrect due to miscalculations in percentage steps.

Using the British flag theorem for rectangle ABCD, PA² + PC² = PB² + PD². Substituting values: 98² + 21² = 91² + PD². Calculating: 9604 + 441 = 8281 + PD² � 10045 = 8281 + PD² � PD² = 1764 � PD = 42. Option C is correct as per theorem application. Others don't satisfy the equation.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Number System, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Ratio and Proportion, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Amount after 2 years = 6800 � (1 + 15/100)^2 = 6800 � (1.15)^2. Calculating: 1.15 � 1.15 = 1.3225. Then, 6800 � 1.3225 = 8993. Option B is correct as it matches the compound interest formula application. Others are incorrect due to wrong calculation or simple interest consideration.

Let the number be x. According to the problem, 20% of x added to 90 equals x. So, 0.2x + 90 = x. Subtracting 0.2x from both sides gives 90 = 0.8x. So, x = 90 / 0.8 = 112.5. The task is to identify 80% of x, which is 0.8 * 112.5 = 90. D is the answer. A common mistake might be misinterpreting the equation setup, but solving step-by-step clarifies it.

Let Soniya's age at marriage be y. Her present age is (8/5)y, and since the marriage was 15 years ago, (8/5)y = y + 15. Multiplying both sides by 5 gives 8y = 5y + 75, so 3y = 75 and y = 25. Her sister was 8 years younger then, so sister's age at that time was 25 - 8 = 17. Now, the sister is 17 + 15 = 32 years old. D is the answer. Incorrect options might result from miscalculating the sister's age progression.

Let the total capacity be T. Two-fifths filled with blue leaves 3/5 T. One-third of the remaining is black: (1/3)(3/5 T) = 1/5 T, leaving 2/5 T. Five-sixths of this remaining is yellow: (5/6)(2/5 T) = 1/3 T, leaving 1/6 of 2/5 T = 1/15 T as white, which equals 4.2 litres. So, 1/15 T = 4.2 � T = 4.2 * 15 = 63 litres. B is the answer. Errors may arise from incorrect fraction calculations at each step.

Buying 6 and getting 4 free means paying for 6 out of 10 items. The discount is on 4 items, so the percentage saved is (4/10)*100 = 40%. C is the answer. A distractor might consider the proportion differently, but the key is the ratio of free items to total items bought.

From 'Some hats are caps' and 'No cap is a vest', we cannot conclude 'Some hats are vests' because the relationship between hats and vests isn't directly established. However, 'Some caps are hats' is a converse of the first statement and logically follows. So, only conclusion II follows. B is the answer. A common error is assuming a direct link between hats and vests, which isn't supported.

A has 5 people to the right, so A is in position 3 (since there are 7 people). B has 5 people to the left, so B is in position 7. F is next to G and E, and C is second to the left of E. If E is in position 5, C is in 3, but A is already there, so E must be in 6, making C in 4. Then F and G must be in 5 and 6, but E is in 6, so F and G are in 1 and 2. So, G is in 2, with 4 people (A, C, D, E) to the left. B is the answer. Errors may come from miscounting positions or misplacing individuals.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbol Substitution, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The question involves substituting symbols with operations. A stands for division (÷), B for multiplication (�), C for addition (+), and D for subtraction (�). Applying these to the equation: 15 ÷ 3 � 10 + 8 � 12. Following order of operations: 15 ÷ 3 = 5; 5 � 10 = 50; 50 + 8 = 58; 58 � 12 = 46. 46 (B) is the answer. The other choices usually come from incorrect operation order or substitution errors.

The task is to identify symbols that are both preceded by a number and followed by another symbol. Examining the series: 8 $ 3 ? 9 % 4 6 7 1 * £ 5 # 2 + @ &. Checking each symbol: $ is preceded by 8 (number) and followed by 3 (number), so it doesn't fit. ? is preceded by 3 (number) but followed by 9 (number). % is preceded by 9 (number) and followed by 4 (number). * is preceded by 1 (number) and followed by £ (symbol) � this fits. £ is preceded by * (symbol), so it doesn't fit. # is preceded by 5 (number) and followed by 2 (number). + is preceded by 2 (number) and followed by @ (symbol) � this fits. So, two symbols (* and +) meet the criteria. 2 (A) is the answer.

To find the total number of students, add Madhur's rank from the top and bottom and subtract 1 (since he is counted twice). Total students = 58 + 6 - 1 = 63. Option C is correct because it accounts for the overlap in counting. Options A, B, and D result from incorrect addition or subtraction, failing to adjust for the double-counting of Madhur's position.

The series increases by 24 each time: 61 +24=85, 85+24=109, 109+24=133, 133+24=157. Following the pattern, the next number is 157+24=181. Option C is correct as it follows the consistent addition of 24. Other options deviate from this established pattern, making them incorrect.

The series decreases by 2, then 4, then 6, then 8, indicating a pattern of increasing the subtracted amount by 2 each time. Starting from 991: 991-2=989, 989-4=985, 985-6=979, 979-8=971. The next subtraction should be 10, so 971-10=961. Option A is correct as it adheres to the incremental subtraction pattern. Other options do not follow the decreasing differences of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10.

To solve this, identify odd digits (1,3,5,7,9) in the series and check their immediate neighbors. The series is: 6 5 8 8 5 4 7 7 4 2 7 9 2 2 5 7 4 8 8 2 1 8 9. Check each odd digit: 5 (preceded by 6-even, followed by 8-even), 5 (preceded by 8-even, followed by 4-even), 7 (preceded by 4-even, followed by 7-odd), 7 (preceded by 7-odd, followed by 4-even), 7 (preceded by 2-even, followed by 9-odd), 9 (preceded by 7-odd, followed by 2-even), 1 (preceded by 2-even, followed by 8-even), 9 (preceded by 8-even, followed by nothing). None of the odd digits are both preceded and followed by odd digits. So, the answer is 'None'.

Analyze the series: 2 8 2 3 2 7 9 3 5 4 6 8 9 4 4 7 8 7 5 4 3 5 5 6 2 9 8. Identify odd digits and check their neighbors. Odd digits are: 3 (preceded by 2-even), 7 (preceded by 2-even), 9 (preceded by 7-odd, followed by 3-odd), 3 (preceded by 9-odd, followed by 5-odd), 5 (preceded by 3-odd, followed by 4-even), 7 (preceded by 4-even), 7 (preceded by 8-even), 5 (preceded by 4-even), 3 (preceded by 4-even), 5 (preceded by 3-odd, followed by 5-odd), 5 (preceded by 5-odd, followed by 6-even), 9 (preceded by 2-even). Only 9, 3, and 5 meet the criteria (each is between two odds). So, three such numbers exist.

Plot Ajay's movements: Starts at A, 16 km west, then right (north) 8 km, left (west) 7 km, left (south) 8 km, right (west) 2 km. Net displacement: West: 16 +7 +2 =25 km, North:8 -8=0 km. So, Ajay is 25 km west of A. To return, he must go 25 km east. The answer is '25 km towards east'.

Track Alex's path: East 8 km, left (north) 6 km, left (west) 17 km, left (south) 13 km, left (east) 9 km. Net movement: East:8 -17 +9=0 km, North:6 -13= -7 km (i.e., 7 km south). So, Alex is 7 km south of A. To return, go 7 km north. The answer is '7 km to the north'.

Analyze the pattern: HBE22, ICF29, JDG36, KEH43. Letters: H(+1=I), I(+1=J), J(+1=K), so next is L. Next letters: B(+2=D), C(+2=E), D(+2=F), E(+2=... no, check second letters: B, C, D, E, so next is F. Third letters: E(+2=G), F(+2=H), G(+2=I), H(+2=J). Numbers: 22(+7=29), 29(+7=36), 36(+7=43), so next is 50. So, the cluster is LFI50. The answer is 'LFI50'.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Start by placing P with two people to the left, so positions 3 from the left. Three people between P and W means W is at position 7. One person between W and X places X at 9. R is immediately left of O, and Y isn't next to W. Testing positions, the arrangement emerges as Y, Q, P, ..., leading to Q having only one person to the right. Key point: systematically applying each condition step-by-step, ensuring no conflicts. The other choices miscount the spacing or misplace Y's restriction.

From 'Some pizzas are cupcakes' and 'All buns are cupcakes', we cannot conclude 'Some pizzas are buns' because the overlap between pizzas and buns isn't guaranteed. 'All cupcakes are buns' is incorrect since the original statements don't state that all cupcakes are buns, only that all buns are cupcakes. So, neither conclusion logically follows. Key point: understanding the direction and scope of categorical statements.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbolic Operations, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Each cluster's letters are spaced in the alphabet: LPJ (L to P is +4, P to J is -6), NRL (N to R is +4, R to L is -2), GKE (G to K is +4, K to E is -6), OSN (O to S is +4, S to N is -5). The pattern involves alternating +4 and -6, except OSN which breaks the -6 step. So, OSN is the odd one out. Key point: identifying consistent spacing patterns in letter sequences.

The pattern involves multiplying the first number by a certain value to get the second, then dividing by another to get the third. For (14, 42, 3): 14*3=42, 42/14=3. Similarly, (12, 60, 5): 12*5=60, 60/12=5. Applying this to options: (13, 39, 3) fits as 13*3=39, 39/13=3. Other options don't maintain this multiply and divide relationship. Key point: recognizing the multiplicative and divisive steps between the numbers.

From the given codes, 'head' is common in both statements and corresponds to 'bm' in the code. 'ohouse sip head' becomes 'obm ma px' and 'head wood robot' becomes 'opz bm ey'. The common word 'head' is coded as 'bm' in both, making 'bm' the consistent code for 'head'. So, 'ohead' would be coded as 'bm'. Key point: identifying consistent codes for repeated words in the statements.

Key point: identifying a pattern in the given codes. RR 4 relates to UQ T14, and II 8 relates to LH T10. Observing the letters, each pair moves forward in the alphabet: R�U (3 steps), I�L (3 steps). Numbers decrease by 2 (4�2, 8�6). Applying this to MO 12: M�P (3 steps), O�N (3 steps), 12-6=6. So, PN T6 (Option C) fits. The other choices don't follow the letter shift or number reduction correctly.

Start by placing C with two people to the right, so positions 1-3: _ C _. Two people between C and B means B is at position 5. Three people between C and D places D at position 6. Two people between D and K puts K at position 4. J is immediately right of I, leaving positions 7 for L. The arrangement is B, K, D, C, _, I, J, L. Counting right of L gives four people (positions 8-11), but since total people are seven, L must be at the far right, making the correct answer Four (Option A).

Analyzing the pattern: URIC � CRUI � RIUC. Each step involves rotating letters: move the first letter to the end. Similarly, KIDS � SIKD � IDKS follows the same rotation. Testing options, FADE � EAFD � ADFE (Option B) matches this rotation logic. Other options either reverse the order or shift incorrectly.

Identify perfect squares (1,4,9) in the series. Check each number to see if preceded and followed by a perfect square. The series is: 4,6,5,8,2,2,1,8,2,9,8,4,7,4,8,2,4,3,1,4,1,2,7,2,6. Numbers meeting the criteria are 6 (4 before, 5 not square), 5 (no), 8 (no), 2 (no), 2 (1 before, 8 after), 8 (1 before, 2 after), 2 (9 before, 8 after), 9 (2 before, 8 after), 8 (9 before, 4 after), 4 (8 before, 7 after), 7 (4 before, 4 after), 4 (7 before, 8 after), 8 (4 before, 2 after), 2 (8 before, 4 after), 4 (2 before, 3 after), 3 (4 before, 1 after), 1 (3 before, 4 after), 4 (1 before, 1 after), 1 (4 before, 2 after), 2 (1 before, 7 after), 7 (2 before, 2 after), 2 (7 before, 6 after). Only 2, 8, 4, and 1 meet the condition, totaling Four (Option D).

Decoding the relationships step-by-step: O + P (O is sister of P), P # T (P is father of T), T @ G (T is brother of G), G - V (G is wife of V). Combining these: O is sister of P, who is father of T, who is brother of G, who is wife of V. So, O is the sister of V's wife's father, making O the wife's father's sister (Option C).

Radhika's rank from top (21st) and bottom (7th) indicates total students = 21 + 7 - 1 = 27. Subtracting 1 accounts for Radhika being counted twice. This matches Option B.

The series alternates between subtracting 6 and adding 2: 616 - 6 = 610, 610 + 2 = 612, 612 - 6 = 606, 606 + 2 = 608. Following this pattern, the next step is 608 - 6 = 602. Option C fits this pattern. Options A, B, and D do not follow the alternating subtraction and addition logic.

Each letter cluster moves back by 3 letters in the alphabet: R�Q (back 3, but since R is the 18th letter, subtracting 3 gives the 15th letter, which is P; however, the actual step here is R�Q (back 1), J�I (back 1), V�U (back 1). The correct pattern is each letter decreases by 1. Applying this: O�N, G�F, S�R. So, the next cluster is NFR. Option C matches. Options A and B do not follow the consistent decrease of 1 in each letter.

Each letter cluster follows a pattern where the letters are in reverse alphabetical order (e.g., IHF: I�H�F, each letter is one step back). UTR (U�T�R) and NMK (N�M�K) follow this. ZZW does not, as Z�Z�W breaks the reverse sequence. Option D is the odd one out. The other options maintain a consistent backward progression.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The question refers to a specific achievement in waste management in Maharashtra. Karad is noted for achieving 100% segregation and processing of sanitary and biomedical waste, handling 300-350 kg daily. This fact is tied to recent environmental initiatives in Maharashtra, so option C is correct. Other cities listed (Nasik, Nagpur, Pune) are not associated with this specific 2025 achievement.

The Bharat Forecasting System (BFS) launched in 2025 for high-resolution weather predictions is associated with the Ministry of Earth Sciences, which oversees meteorological and atmospheric research. Option A is correct. Other ministries listed do not directly handle weather forecasting systems, making them incorrect choices.

The answer depends on a digital facility launched by the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment in May 2025. the Senior Citizens Welfare Portal (Option A) is the answer. This portal was specifically launched during the 'Ageing with Dignity' event, focusing on welfare services for senior citizens. Options B and C might seem plausible as they relate to digital platforms for seniors, but the key detail is the event name and the ministry involved, which directly points to Option A. Option D is unrelated to welfare services.

This checks India's biotech startup growth. Nearly 11,000 (Option A), as stated by the Government of India in July 2025 is the answer. This highlights significant growth from 50 startups a decade ago. Options B, C, and D are lower numbers and do not reflect the reported data. For revision, remember the exponential growth in the biotech sector, emphasizing the government's focus on innovation and entrepreneurship.

The study by Climate Trends used NASA data to assess the impact on Himalayan glaciers. Black Carbon (Option D), a pollutant known to accelerate glacier melting by absorbing sunlight is the answer. Sulfate Aerosols (A) can reflect sunlight, potentially slowing melting, while Mineral Dust (B) and Ozone (C) have different environmental effects. Understanding the role of black carbon in climate change is crucial for such questions.

The chemical factory blast occurred in Sangareddy (Option C) on 30 June 2025. This requires recalling specific incidents and their locations. Vijayawada (A) and Warangal (D) are cities in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, respectively, but the blast was reported in Sangareddy, a district in Telangana. Nizamabad (B) is another Telangana city but not the correct location here.

Option B is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Science and Technology, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) shifted its Andhra Pradesh regional office to Vijayawada in June 2025 (Option B). The RBI's office relocation is a notable event, distinguishing it from other financial institutions. Options A, C, and D refer to different financial entities, but the question specifically mentions the RBI's inauguration of new premises, so option B is correct.

The answer depends on the theme of the 78th World Health Assembly in 2025. The correct answer is 'One World for Health' (B). This theme emphasizes global unity in addressing health challenges. Option A refers to Universal Health Coverage, a broader concept not specific to 2025. Option C mentions resilient systems, which relates to health infrastructure but isn't the 2025 theme. Option D discusses equity, a key issue but not the exact theme. For revision, focus on recent WHO events for such questions.

The RBI launched a documentary in June 2025 to explain its functions. The correct answer is 'RBI Unlocked: Beyond the Rupee' (D). This title suggests exploring the RBI's role beyond currency management. Option A, 'Financial Literacy A2Z,' sounds like a general awareness campaign, not specific to RBI functions. Option B, 'Money Simplified,' is too generic. Option C, 'My RBI Story,' implies personal narratives, which doesn't fit an explanatory documentary. For revision, note recent RBI initiatives for such questions.

The task is to identify which chess player, besides Gukesh, received the Arjuna Award in 2025. Vantika Agrawal (D) is the answer. Gukesh and Vantika Agrawal were both awarded, making her the correct choice. Options A (Koneru Humpy) and B (Pentala Harikrishna) are established players but weren't the 2025 recipients. Option C (Harika Dronavalli) is also a known player but not the awardee in question. For revision, recall recent Arjuna Award winners in chess.

India won the ICC Women's U19 T20 World Cup 2025 by defeating South Africa (B) in the final. This match result is specific to the 2025 tournament. Option A (England) and D (Australia) are strong teams but weren't the finalists in this case. Option C (Sri Lanka) is less likely given recent tournament performances. For revision, remember outcomes of major international sports events.

Option D is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Legal and Environmental Issues, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

Para-Athletics (A) had the most Arjuna Award recipients in January 2025. This reflects increased recognition of para-sports in India. Option B (Athletics) is a broad category but doesn't account for the para-athletes' dominance in awards that year. Options C (Hockey) and D (Shooting) are popular sports but had fewer recipients. For revision, note the growing prominence of para-sports in national awards.

Option D is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on National Events, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This question is about a Supreme Court ruling on maternity leave. The correct option is Madras High Court (C) because the Supreme Court overturned its order, emphasizing constitutional rights. The other options (A, B, D) are incorrect as they were not involved in this specific 2025 judgment. It's crucial to link the court names with recent landmark rulings for such questions.

Focus on India's Guinness World Record for a human formation. Ashoka Chakra (A), a symbol of India, making it a likely choice for such a record is the answer. The other symbols (B, C, D) are internationally recognized but not specifically tied to India's 2025 achievement. For revision, connect national symbols with record-breaking events.

The answer depends on an award for children's book writers in multiple languages. Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar (A), which specifically recognizes young writers across Indian languages is the answer. The other options (B, C, D) either do not focus on children's literature or are not limited to 22 languages. Familiarity with literary awards and their categories is essential here.

Key point: identifying the author of a recently released book on Test Cricket. Tim Wigmore (A), as he authored the 2025 book is the answer. The other authors (B, C, D) are known for cricket literature but did not write this specific title. For revision, keep track of recent publications and their authors for such questions.

The question is about a state achieving functional literacy under a specific programme. Tripura (B), recognized in June 2025 is the answer. The other states (A, C, D) may have literacy initiatives but did not achieve this particular milestone. For revision, track state-specific achievements under national programmes like ULLAS.

The waterhole method census in June 2025 was conducted in Desert National Park (option B), known for Great Indian Bustard sightings. Bandhavgarh, Ranthambore, and Kanha (A, C, D) are tiger reserves or parks not primarily associated with this species. For revision, link specific parks to their flagship species for such questions.

From the given conditions: C is the reference point. D is third to the right of C, and E is third to the left of C, placing D and E opposite each other with C in the middle. B is second to the left of D, and G is immediate left of A. The arrangement would be G, A, E, C, B, D, F (assuming clockwise). Counting from F's left, F is next to D, then C, B, A, G. So, between F and G are D, C, B, A, which is four people, but the item asks from F's left, which would be D, C, B, A, G, making it three people between F and G when counted from F's left. Option D is correct.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Alphabet Coding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.