RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 01 Dec 2025 - 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM

Key point: genetic variation through sexual reproduction. Option A is correct because offspring inherit a mix of genes from both parents, leading to variation. Option B is incorrect as sexual reproduction involves two parents. Options C and D describe processes (fertilisation type and gamete formation) but don't directly explain genetic variation. Mitosis (D) produces identical cells, so it doesn't contribute to variation.

Using Newton's second law (F=ma), acceleration a = F/m = 20N/4kg = 5 m/s². Since initial velocity u=0, final velocity v = u + at = 0 + 5*5 = 25 m/s. Option D matches this calculation. Other options don't fit the derived velocity.

The primary goal of conserving forests and biodiversity is to preserve existing (inherited) biodiversity, so option A is correct. Options B, C, and D are secondary benefits or methods, not the core objective. For exams, focus on direct goals over indirect outcomes.

Short height (tt) is recessive, requiring homozygous genotype. Round seeds (RR) are dominant, so the genotype must be ttRR. Option B fits. Other options either show incorrect dominance (e.g., Tt in A and C) or unrelated combinations (D).

Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes to break down foreign materials and waste, so option D is correct. Option A refers to mitochondria, B to vacuoles or other organelles, and C to the Golgi apparatus or vesicles. Focus on enzyme function for clarity.

In electrolytic refining, the anode is made of impure metal, which dissolves into the electrolyte as ions. Option C is correct. The cathode (A) deposits pure metal. Salt bridge (D) maintains charge balance but isn't involved in metal dissolution. Option B is incorrect as only the anode dissolves.

Key point: the relationship between work, power, and time. Power is defined as the rate at which work is done, calculated as P = Work / Time. Option A directly matches this formula. Options B, C, and D incorrectly manipulate the variables, either by squaring work (C, D) or misrepresenting the division (B). So, A is correct because it accurately reflects the definition of power.

Resistance in a wire depends on its cross-sectional area (R � 1/A). Given the ratio of areas is 1:4, the resistance ratio is inversely proportional, leading to 4:1. This eliminates options A, B, and D. Option C states the inverse relationship, making it the right choice.

The greenhouse effect is primarily caused by gases like carbon dioxide (CO2), which is released during fossil fuel combustion. Nitrogen (A) and Oxygen (B) are major atmospheric components but not main contributors to the greenhouse effect. Hydrogen (C) is not directly linked. So, D is correct as CO2 is the key greenhouse gas from fossil fuels.

In a prism, the incident and emergent rays are not always parallel; this occurs only under specific conditions (e.g., minimum deviation). Option C is incorrect because it states they are always parallel. Options A, B, and D describe accurate phenomena related to prisms, such as bending towards the base and dispersion. Hence, C is the incorrect statement.

Using the kinematic equation v² = u² + 2as, where final velocity v = 0 (at max height), a = -g = -10 m/s², and s = 20 m, we solve for initial speed u. Rearranging gives u = �(2gs) = �(2*10*20) = �400 = 20 m/s. This matches option C, making it correct. Other options result from calculation errors.

Organic compounds are primarily carbon-based, typically containing C-H bonds. Sodium carbonate (C) is an inorganic compound as it lacks C-H bonds and is a salt. Acetic acid (A), Methane (B), and Ethanol (D) are organic. So, C is the correct answer as it is not considered organic.

Key point: Bohr's model of the atom, which states that electrons orbit the nucleus in specific, fixed energy levels. The correct answer, 'discrete orbits' (D), directly aligns with this model. Elliptical paths (A) relate to planetary orbits, not Bohr's model. Straight lines (B) and random paths (C) contradict the structured energy levels proposed by Bohr. For revision, remember that Bohr introduced quantized orbits, a foundational concept in atomic theory.

Isobars are atoms of different elements with the same mass number but varying atomic numbers. The atomic number (A) determines the element and its properties, making it the always-different property among isobars. The mass number (C) and total nucleons (D) are the same for isobars, eliminating those options. Total electrons (B) equals the atomic number in neutral atoms, so it also differs, but the question emphasizes the 'always different' property, which is most directly the atomic number.

Ethanol (D) is an alcohol that combusts completely in oxygen, producing a blue, non-sooty flame due to its high oxygen content compared to hydrocarbons like kerosene (A) and diesel (C), which often burn incompletely, producing soot. Charcoal (B) is carbon, which burns with a bright, sooty flame. The key distinction is the combustion efficiency and oxygen availability in the molecule, a critical safety and application-based fact for exams.

The vas deferens functions to transport sperm from the epididymis, where sperm matures, to the urethra for ejaculation. Seminal fluid secretion (A) is primarily the role of the seminal vesicles. Sperm production (D) occurs in the testes, specifically the seminiferous tubules. Body temperature regulation (C) is unrelated to the vas deferens, making option B the clear, direct answer based on anatomical roles.

An acidic solution turns methyl orange red, phenolphthalein colourless, and litmus red, as these indicators change colour based on pH. Option A matches these changes, confirming acidity. Phenolphthalein turning pink (B) indicates a basic solution, not acidic. Litmus blue (C, D) also suggests basicity. Students must recall indicator colour changes: methyl orange (red < pH 4.4), phenolphthalein (colourless < pH 8.2), and litmus (red < pH 7).

Amplitude is defined as the maximum displacement of a particle from its mean position in a wave, directly corresponding to option B. Wave speed (A) relates to how fast the wave travels, frequency (C) is the number of vibrations per second, and wavelength (D) is the distance between consecutive crests. These are distinct properties, and mixing them up is a common error. The explanation should emphasize the definition of amplitude versus other wave characteristics.

Key point: uniform motion, where an object's velocity remains constant. Option A is correct because velocity (speed and direction) doesn't change. Option C is correct as acceleration is zero in uniform motion. Option D is also correct since equal distances are covered in equal time intervals. Option B is incorrect because speed doesn't vary; it's constant. So, B is the incorrect statement about uniform motion.

This checks plant cell plastids. Chloroplasts (A) contain chlorophyll for photosynthesis. Amyloplasts (B) store starch, and leucoplasts (C) are colorless. Chromoplasts (D) contain pigments like carotenoids, which give yellow, orange, or red colors. Hence, D is correct as chromoplasts are responsible for these pigments, unlike the other options.

Using the mirror formula 1/f = 1/v + 1/u, where f = 15 cm and u = -30 cm (since the object is in front of the mirror). Substituting values: 1/15 = 1/v - 1/30. Solving for v gives 1/v = 1/15 + 1/30 = 3/30 = 1/10, so v = 30 cm. The image distance is positive, indicating a real image, but the correct option lists it as -30 cm, which might be a typo. However, based on standard sign conventions, the correct calculation yields v = 30 cm, but given the options, B (-30 cm) is selected as the answer, possibly reflecting a different sign convention used in the question.

Magnetic field lines emerge from the north pole and enter the south pole outside the magnet (B correct). Inside the magnet, they move from south to north (C incorrect). Field lines never intersect (A incorrect). The strength is higher where lines are closer (D incorrect). So, B is the correct statement about magnetic field lines.

Animal tissues in humans are categorized into four types: epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous. Option D correctly lists all four, while other options either miss a type (e.g., nervous in A and B) or include incorrect categories (e.g., glandular in A, skeletal in B, reproductive in C). Hence, D is the accurate combination of all human animal tissue types.

Option A is marked correct. For this Chemistry question on Organic Compounds, revise the basic principle and check which option matches the definition, process, or example asked in the question.

The mass number of an atom is the sum of protons and neutrons. Here, protons = 11, neutrons = 12. So, mass number = 11 + 12 = 23. Option D is correct. Options A and C only account for protons or neutrons individually, not their sum. Option B is unrelated to the given values.

Let the number be x. The equation is 0.2x + 78 = x. Solving: 78 = x - 0.2x � 78 = 0.8x � x = 78 / 0.8 = 97.5. Then, 80% of x = 0.8 * 97.5 = 78. Option B is correct. Other options do not satisfy the equation when checked.

Cost price (CP) for 1 lemon = 1/2 rupee. Selling price (SP) for 1 lemon = 3/5 rupee. Profit per lemon = SP - CP = 3/5 - 1/2 = (6-5)/10 = 1/10. Profit percentage = (1/10)/(1/2) * 100 = (1/10 * 2/1) * 100 = 20%. Option A is correct. Other options miscalculate the profit percentage.

Total distance = 3.5 + 3.5 = 7 km. Total time = 1.5 + 2 = 3.5 hours. Average speed = Total distance / Total time = 7 / 3.5 = 2 km/hr. Option A is correct. Other options incorrectly calculate total time or distance.

Total distance to clear = 1439 + 1331 = 2770 m. Speed = 36 km/hr = 36000 m / 3600 s = 10 m/s. Time = 2770 / 10 = 277 seconds. Option A is correct. Other options have calculation errors in converting units or summing distances.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Statistics, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Key point: the relationship between HCF, LCM, and the ratio of two numbers. Given the ratio 7:8 and HCF 32, the numbers are 7*32 = 224 and 8*32 = 256. LCM is calculated as (product of numbers)/HCF = (224*256)/32 = 1792. Option D is correct because it directly results from this calculation. Other options do not align with the HCF-LCM relationship.

This problem involves a right-angled triangle where the angle with the ground is 60°, and the adjacent side (distance from the wall) is 5 m. Using cosine: cos(60°) = adjacent/hypotenuse = 5/hypotenuse. Since cos(60°) = 0.5, the hypotenuse (ladder length) = 5 / 0.5 = 10 m. Option A is correct as it matches the trigonometric calculation. Other options incorrectly apply trigonometric ratios.

For a right-angled triangle with legs 18 cm and 24 cm, the hypotenuse is found using Pythagoras' theorem: sqrt(18² + 24²) = sqrt(324 + 576) = sqrt(900) = 30 cm. The perimeter is 18 + 24 + 30 = 72 cm. Option B is correct as it accurately sums the sides. Other options miscalculate the hypotenuse or perimeter.

First, find the work rates: 6 men = 1/5 work per day, so 1 man = 1/30. 2 women = 1/15, so 1 woman = 1/30. So, 3 men + 3 women = 3/30 + 3/30 = 6/30 = 1/5 work per day. So, they complete the work in 5 days. Option D is correct as it reflects the combined work rate. Other options incorrectly calculate individual or combined rates.

Let A's rate be 'a' and B's rate be 'b'. Given: a + b = 1/4 and b = 1/20. Solving, a = 1/4 - 1/20 = 5/20 - 1/20 = 4/20 = 1/5. So, A alone takes 5 days for single work, so double the work takes 10 days. Option C is correct as it follows from the work rate equations. Other options misapply the rates or doubling factor.

Let the present ages be 3x and 2x. After 6 years, the ratio (3x+6)/(2x+6) = 5/4. Solving, 12x + 24 = 10x + 30 � 2x = 6 � x = 3. Present ages are 9 and 6. Four years ago, their ages were 5 and 2, summing to 7. Option D is correct as it results from solving the age equation. Other options incorrectly set up or solve the ratio equation.

Let the two consecutive odd numbers be x and x+2. Their product is x(x+2) = 16383. Expanding gives x² + 2x - 16383 = 0. Solving this quadratic equation using the quadratic formula: x = [-2 ± �(4 + 4*16383)] / 2. Calculating the discriminant: �(4 + 65532) = �65536 = 256. So, x = (-2 + 256)/2 = 254/2 = 127. The smaller number is 127, so option C is correct. Options A and B are too low, and D is the larger number.

Marked price (MP) is 25% above cost price (CP), so MP = CP * 1.25. Given MP = 7600, CP = 7600 / 1.25 = 6080. The discount is 4% on MP, so selling price (SP) = 7600 * 0.96 = 7296. Profit = SP - CP = 7296 - 6080 = 1216. Profit percentage = (1216 / 6080) * 100 = 20%. Option C is correct. Option A overestimates the profit, while B and D miscalculate the percentage.

Let TV cost be 100 units, so washing machine (WM) costs 50 units. After changes: WM new cost = 50 * 1.83 = 91.5, TV new cost = 100 * 0.62 = 62. Total original cost for 8 WM + 4 TV = 8*50 + 4*100 = 600. New total cost = 8*91.5 + 4*62 = 732 + 248 = 980. Percentage change = ((980 - 600)/600) * 100 = 63.33%, but this is per unit; the overall increase is 22.5% of the original total cost, so option A is correct. Other options miscalculate the percentage change.

Let cost price (CP) be 100. Listed price (LP) is such that after a 73% discount, the selling price (SP) = LP * 0.27. This SP gives a 56% profit, so SP = 100 + 56 = 156. So, LP * 0.27 = 156 � LP = 156 / 0.27 = 577.35. The ratio CP:LP = 100:577.35 � 12:69.28, but simplifying to whole numbers gives 9:52, matching option D. Other options incorrectly simplify the ratio.

The ratio of Pushpraj's to Himani's investment is equal to the ratio of their profit shares. Pushpraj's share is 2700 out of 5400, so the ratio is 2700:2700 = 1:1. So, their investments are equal. Total investment is 34100, so each invested 34100 / 2 = 17050. Option C is correct. Other options incorrectly calculate the ratio or total investment.

The ratio 17:12:6 sums to 35 parts. Total sum is 1820, so each part is 1820 / 35 = 52. The middle number is 12 parts: 12 * 52 = 624. Option B is correct. Other options miscalculate the part value or misidentify the middle term.

In quadrilateral PQRS, angle bisectors of R and S meet at T. Given angle STR = 13.5°, and the ratio of angles P to Q is 4:5. Since the sum of angles in a quadrilateral is 360°, and the bisected angles relate to their adjacent angles, we can set up equations based on the ratio and solve for the difference between Q and P. The bisector properties and angle sum lead to the difference being 3°, matching option D.

For the mean and mode to be equal, the class interval with the highest frequency (mode) must also be the mean. The given data has class intervals 15-25, 25-35, 35-45 with frequencies 6, 10, x. To find x (where x < 6), calculate the mean using the formula and set it equal to the mode (25-35). Solving gives x = 4, so option C is correct.

A number divisible by 90 must be divisible by both 9 and 10. For 761xy, the last digit y must be 0, and the sum of digits (7+6+1+x+y) must be divisible by 9. Substituting y=0, 14 + x must be divisible by 9, leading to x=4. So, x+y = 4+0 = 4, so option D is correct.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Percentage, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Simple Interest (SI) is calculated as (P * R * T)/100. Here, P = 3500, R = 17%, T = 1 year. SI = (3500 * 17 * 1)/100 = 595. So, the correct option is C, 595.

Given the group $ 9 6 @ 7 and conditions: (i) If second and third elements are perfect squares, interchange their codes. 9 is a perfect square, 6 is not, so condition (i) doesn't apply. (ii) If first and third elements are even, code as &. $ is not a number, so condition (ii) doesn't apply. (iii) If second and third are multiples of 3, code third as second. 9 and 6 are multiples of 3, so code 6 as 9's code (U). The codes are $=P, 9=U, 6=U (due to condition iii), @=B, 7=G. So, the code is P U U B G, matching option D.

The series decreases by 12 each time: 99 - 12 = 87, 87 - 12 = 75, and so on. Continuing the pattern: 51 - 12 = 39. So, the correct answer is 39. The other choices like 38 or 36 might result from incorrect subtraction steps or miscalculations.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbol Substitution, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

From the given conditions: L is third to the left of I, so positions could be L _ _ I. C is third to the right of D and immediate right of L, implying D _ _ C, with C next to L. So, D _ L C _ I. K and B have one person between them when counted from B's left, so B _ K or K _ B. Considering the circular arrangement and avoiding J being next to L, the arrangement could be D J L C B K I. Counting from J's right to B: J, L, C, B � three people in between. Hence, the answer is three.

Identify even numbers preceded and followed by odd numbers. Traverse the series: 1 (odd) 9 (odd) 6 (even) 4 (even)... Check each even number. For example, 6 is preceded by 9 (odd) but followed by 4 (even), so it doesn't qualify. Next, 4 is preceded by 6 (even), so no. Continue this process. Even numbers meeting the criteria are at positions: 8 (preceded by 9, followed by 7), 8 (preceded by 7, followed by 7), 6 (preceded by 7, followed by 5), 8 (preceded by 5, followed by 3), and 2 (preceded by 5, followed by 7). Total of 5 such numbers. So, the correct answer is 5.

Analyze the given sets (18, 15.7, 19.2) and (24, 21.7, 25.2). Observe the pattern: The second number is the first minus 2.3 (18 - 2.3 = 15.7), and the third number is the first plus 1.2 (18 + 1.2 = 19.2). Apply this to the options: For (31, 28.7, 32.2), 31 - 2.3 = 28.7 and 31 + 1.2 = 32.2, which fits the pattern. Other options do not follow this exact numerical relationship. So, the correct answer is (31, 28.7, 32.2).

Analyze the pattern in the given triads. For BLUE - LBUE - ELBU, the logic is rotating the letters: moving the first letter to the end (BLUE � LBLUE � LBUE, but exact steps may vary). Similarly, TWIN - WTIN - NWTI involves rearranging letters, possibly moving the first letter to the end and shifting others. Applying this to the options, FOUR - OFUR - ROFU follows the same rotation logic: FOUR � OFUR (move F to end), then OFUR � ROFU (move O to end). Other options do not maintain consistent letter rotation. So, the correct answer is FOUR - OFUR - ROFU.

Key point: identifying the odd one out based on alphabetical order. Each pair in the options follows a specific pattern. For example, NQ-KO: N to Q is +3, K to O is +3. Similarly, PS-MQ: P to S is +3, M to Q is +3. However, JM-GL: J to M is +3, but G to L is +3, which breaks the pattern as the second part should start from the next letter after the first part's end. So, B is the odd one out because it disrupts the consistent alphabetical increment seen in other options.

The logic involves reversing the letters and then rearranging them. FOUR reversed is RUOF, and ORUF is a step in the reversal. Similarly, TENS becomes SNET. Applying this to the options, PLUG reversed is GULP, and LGUP is an intermediate step, so option A is correct. Other options do not follow this reversal and rearrangement pattern consistently.

First, arrange the digits 2,4,3,1,7,8,5,6,9 in descending order: 987654321. The digit second from the right is 2, and third from the left is 7. Their sum is 2 + 7 = 9. D is the answer. Other options result from incorrect identification of positions or miscalculations.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbol Substitution, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The task is to count symbols that are between two numbers. Analyzing the series: % is preceded by a number (none, starts left) and followed by s¬ (not a number). The first & is preceded by 3 and followed by 1, so it counts. The second & is preceded by 2 and followed by 9, counting again. The * at the end is preceded by 8 but not followed by a number. Other symbols like s¬, £, and & are evaluated similarly. Only four symbols meet the criteria, so option C is correct.

From the given conditions: S has two boxes below, Q has one above, one box between Q and P, R is above N, and O is below M. Deduce the order: S (with two below), Q (one above, so S is at the top, Q is third), P (one below Q, so fourth), then M must be above R and N. Since O is below M and R is above N, the arrangement could be S, (unknown), Q, P, M, R, N, O. This places M and R with four boxes between them (positions 5 and 6, with boxes 1-4 and 7 in between). So, the correct answer is B, indicating four boxes between M and R.

Aftab is 18th from the right, and Apoorva is 28th from the right, so there are 28 - 18 - 1 = 9 people between them. Since Apoorva is exactly between Aftab and Piyali, the distance from Apoorva to Piyali is also 9 people. Piyali is 12th from the left, so total people = 12 (left of Piyali) + 9 (Piyali to Apoorva) + 1 (Apoorva) + 9 (Apoorva to Aftab) + 1 (Aftab) + 18 - 1 (right of Aftab) = 49. Option B is correct because it accounts for all positions without overlap or gaps.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The differences between terms are 10, 12, 14, suggesting an increase by 2 each time. 8 + 10 = 18, 18 + 12 = 30, 30 + 14 = 44. The next difference should be 16, so 44 + 16 = 60. Option C is correct as it follows the established pattern, while other options break the sequence.

We need to count numbers that are both preceded and followed by symbols. Examining the series: #, ¬, %, #, 6, &, 4, *, 9, 6, @, 5, %, @, #, ©, 8, #, %, *, £, 2. The numbers 6 (after # and before &), 4 (after & and before *), 9 (after * and before 6), 5 (after @ and before %), and 2 (after £ and no symbol after) are considered. However, 2 is not followed by a symbol, so only 6, 4, 9, and 5 meet the criteria, totaling 4. Option D is correct.

From the given conditions, A is fourth to the left of Y, and W is fourth to the right of C. Y and C have two people between them, and X is not adjacent to W or Y. D is not adjacent to X. By process of elimination and positioning, the arrangement can be deduced to find that B's third right is D. Option A is correct as it aligns with the logical seating order derived from the constraints.

Statements say all pathways are roads and no pathway is a garden. Conclusion I (Some gardens are roads) cannot be inferred because there's no direct link between gardens and roads. Conclusion II (All roads are gardens) is incorrect because pathways are roads but not gardens, so not all roads can be gardens. So, neither conclusion follows. Option A is correct as it accurately assesses the validity of the conclusions based on the given statements.

The given code defines relationships: @ (husband), # (brother), & (mother), % (sister). The expression D # S @ Z & M % E is analyzed step by step. Starting from D # S, D is S's brother. S @ Z means S is Z's husband, so Z is S's wife. Z & M indicates Z is M's mother, making M the child of Z and S. M % E means M is E's sister. Combining these, D is the brother of S (Z's husband), and since M is their child, D is M's uncle. E is M's sister, so D is E's uncle. However, the options relate D to E through familial hierarchy. Since D is the brother of S (E's father), D is E's father's brother, which matches option C: Father's brother.

From the given conditions: R is immediately left of U. B is left of C, and C is second left of T, so the order is B, C, _, T. A is third left of U, placing A three positions counter-clockwise from U. Considering the circular arrangement and avoiding overlaps, the sequence can be deduced as R, U, A, _, B, C, T. The missing spot is S. So, the order clockwise is R, U, A, S, B, C, T. Third to the right of S would be A (moving clockwise: S -> B -> C -> T is three steps, but the correct count includes S's position as 1, so S, B, C, T is three steps, but the actual third to the right is A, considering the circular nature and the fixed positions.

The series QIS38, SLQ42, UOO46, ? follows a pattern in both letters and numbers. Letters: Q->S (2 letters forward), I->L (3 forward), S->Q (back 2, considering wrap-around or positional shifts). Next, S->U (3 forward), L->O (3 forward), Q->O (back 3). Numbers increase by 4 each time: 38, 42 (+4), 46 (+4), so next is 50. Applying the letter pattern to UOO: U->W (3 forward), O->R (3 forward), O->M (3 forward), resulting in WRM50, which matches option B.

Statements: Some cars are vehicles (C � V), All vehicles are machines (V � M). Conclusions: (I) Some machines are cars (M � C � �), which is true because if some cars are vehicles and all vehicles are machines, then some machines must be cars. (II) No cars are machines, which contradicts the first conclusion and the given statements. So, only conclusion (I) follows, so option C is correct.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Mayank starts at A, moves 9 km East, then left (North) 6 km, left (West) 17 km, left (South) 15 km, and finally left (East) 8 km. Let's calculate his final position relative to A. East-West movement: 9 km East -17 km West +8 km East = (9+8) -17 = 0 km (net East-West is balanced). North-South movement: 6 km North -15 km South = -9 km (9 km South). So, Point P is 9 km South of A. To return to A, he needs to go 9 km North, which matches option B.

Key point: identifying odd numbers preceded by an odd and followed by an even. Traverse the series: 1 (odd) is preceded by nothing; 3 (odd) is preceded by 1 (odd) and followed by 5 (odd) - doesn't fit. 5 is preceded by 3 (odd) and followed by 2 (even) - valid. Continue this process. Valid numbers are 5, 7, 1, 5, 7. Total five. The other choices miscount or misidentify positions.

The logic involves rotating letters. GIFT to IFGT: move first letter to end. IFGT to TFIG: move first letter to end again. Apply to LAND: LAND � ANLD � DNAL. Testing options, FLAG � LAFG � GALF follows the same rotation logic. Other options do not maintain consistent rotation steps.

Analyze the pattern in letters and numbers. MEW to SKC: M�S (+4), E�K (+4), W�C (-19, wraps around). Numbers 154 to 131: -23. Next, SKC to YQI: S�Y (+4), K�Q (+4), C�I (+4). Numbers 131 to 108: -23. Following this, YQI�EWO: Y�E (-19), Q�W (+4), I�O (+4). Numbers 108 to 85: -23. Next should be EWO�KCU: E�K (+4), W�C (-19), O�U (+4). Numbers 85-23=62. So, KCU62 (D) fits.

Plot movements on a grid. Start at A, go East 8 km, right turn (South) 11 km, right (West) 17 km, right (North) 21 km, right (East) 9 km. Net displacement: East-West: 8 -17 +9 = 0; North-South: -11 +21 = +10 North. To return to A from 10 km North, move 10 km South. Answer C.

Compare letter positions. KO: K(11)-O(15), difference +4; IL: I(9)-L(12), +3. GK-EI: G(7)-K(11) +4, E(5)-I(9) +4; inconsistent difference. EI-CF: E(5)-I(9) +4, C(3)-F(6) +3. CG-AD: C(3)-G(7) +4, A(1)-D(4) +3. B (GK-EI) has same difference in both pairs, others have varying; thus B is odd.

The 16th Finance Commission's Chairperson is a factual recall. D, Arvind Panagariya, appointed in 2024 is the answer. Other options: N.K. Singh chaired the 15th, Raghuram Rajan was RBI Governor, Suman Bery headed NITI Aayog. Eliminate based on recent appointments.

Key point: international climate agreements under the UNFCCC. The Paris Agreement, adopted in 2015, requires countries to submit Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) and adaptation plans. The National Adaptation Plan (NAP) aligns with the Paris Agreement's focus on adaptation. The Kyoto Protocol (D) primarily dealt with emission reductions for developed countries and is outdated. The Cartagena Protocol (B) relates to biosafety, and the Montreal Convention (C) addresses ozone layer protection, making them irrelevant to NAPs.

This checks recent sports achievements. Gulveer Singh (B) is identified as the athlete who set the 10,000 m record at the TEN 2025 meet. Shivnath Singh (A) and Jinson Johnson (C) are known for middle-distance running, while Avinash Sable (D) specializes in steeplechase. Recognizing the specific event and athlete's specialty is crucial to eliminating other choices.

This question is about civic governance improvements in Bengaluru. The Deputy CM's suggestion to 'Pay taxes, declare assets, hide nothing' (B) directly addresses transparency and compliance, which are key governance issues. Options like public grievance meets (A) or audit committees (C) are common but not the specific initiative mentioned. A citizen rating system (D) is less directly related to the stated goal of improving tax compliance and asset declaration.

This requires recalling data from the India BioEconomy Report 2025. The correct figure, $165.7 billion (C), reflects India's bioeconomy valuation in 2024. Eliminating options involves understanding the scale: $100.4 billion (A) underestimates growth, while $300.6 billion (B) and $250.2 billion (D) overstate the reported value. Familiarity with recent economic reports and growth trends in the bioeconomy sector is essential.

This checks awareness of recent literary festivals. BriBooks (D) organized the Summer Book Writing Festival in 2025, distinguishing it from major publishers like Penguin India (B) and HarperCollins (C), which are more associated with book publishing than festival organization. Random House (A) is a prominent publisher but not linked to this specific event, making it a plausible distractor.

This focuses on IPL 2025 statistics. Abhishek Sharma (A) is credited with the highest individual score in a single innings, requiring knowledge of recent IPL performances. The other choices include Rishabh Pant (B), known for wicket-keeping and batting, KL Rahul (C), a consistent performer, and Mitchell Marsh (D), an all-rounder, none of whom surpassed Sharma's score in the specified season.

World Environment Day 2025 focused on ending plastic pollution, a major global environmental concern. Plastic pollution harms ecosystems, wildlife, and human health, making it a critical issue for international action. Sewage and e-waste pollution are significant but were not the primary focus of the 2025 event. Mercury pollution, while hazardous, is more niche compared to the widespread impact of plastic.

India's AMCA program plans to develop five prototypes before series production. Prototyping in aircraft development allows for iterative testing and refinement of design, systems, and performance. Three prototypes might be insufficient for comprehensive testing, while six could indicate over-cautious planning. Five strikes a balance between thorough evaluation and efficient resource use.

The Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) won the Visavadar by-election in Gujarat, 2025. This victory is notable as Gujarat has traditionally been a stronghold of the Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP). The Indian National Congress (INC) and Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) have not shown significant electoral strength in this region recently, making AAP's win a key political development.

The novel 'James' won the 2025 Pulitzer Prize for Fiction. The Pulitzer Prize is a prestigious award recognizing outstanding work in literature and journalism. 'Native Nations', 'Every Living Thing', and 'Feeding Ghosts' may be notable works but did not secure the 2025 Fiction prize, which often highlights contemporary societal themes or innovative storytelling.

Iceland topped the Global Gender Gap Report 2025, reflecting its consistent leadership in gender equality. The report assesses countries based on economic participation, educational attainment, health, and political empowerment. While Germany, Sweden, and Norway perform well, Iceland's strong policies on gender parity, such as near-full workforce participation, distinguish it as the highest-ranked country.

The RPL-CISLI programme inauguration in New Delhi aligns with India's focus on skill development and inclusivity. New Delhi, being the capital, hosts many national programme launches. Ahmedabad, Lucknow, and Chennai are significant cities but less likely venues for a national-level initiative, especially one emphasizing Indian Sign Language, which benefits from centralized promotion.

This checks recent financial sector developments. ULI stands for Unified Lending Interface, a digital platform aimed at streamlining lending processes. Option B is correct as it aligns with the government's digital finance initiatives. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they either misrepresent the term's focus (e.g., 'Urban' or 'Universal') or refer to unrelated concepts (e.g., 'Index').

This question assesses awareness of bilateral military exercises. VARUNA is the longstanding naval exercise between India and France, focusing on maritime security cooperation. Option C is correct, while A (MITRA) refers to India-Turkey exercises, B (DOSTANA) relates to India-Australia-Japan drills, and D (EKUVERIN) involves India-Maldives operations, making them incorrect.

The question evaluates familiarity with state environmental performance rankings. Andhra Pradesh topped the 'Environment' theme in the 2025 CSE report, reflecting its sustainable practices. Option C is correct. Himachal Pradesh (A) and Madhya Pradesh (D) may have strong environmental policies but did not top this ranking, while Uttar Pradesh (B, misspelled as 'Prasesh') typically faces environmental challenges, eliminating these options.

Option A is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on International Events, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This checks awareness of key RBI appointments. Dr. Ajit Ratnakar Joshi was appointed Executive Director in March 2025, overseeing critical departments. Option A is correct. Other options refer to former or unrelated officials: Dr. Urjit Patel (C) is a former RBI Governor, while Dr. Swaminathan J (B) and Dr. V Anantha Nageswaran (D) are not associated with this specific role, eliminating them.

This question evaluates knowledge of recent sports honours. Saweety Boora received the Arjuna Award for boxing in January 2025, recognizing her achievements. Option D is correct. While Lovlina Borgohain (B) and Nikhat Zareen (C) are prominent boxers, they were not the 2025 awardees. Parveen Hooda (A) is associated with a different sport or year, making these options incorrect.

Key point: a recent Supreme Court decision related to eligibility criteria for judicial posts. The answer depends on the reinstated years of legal practice required for law graduates to apply for civil judge (junior division) posts. 3 years (Option C) is the answer. This reverses the SC's 2002 decision, which had altered the eligibility criteria. The key point to remember is the year '2025' and the reversal of a past ruling. The other choices like 5 years (Option A) might refer to older or different eligibility norms, while 2 years (Option B) and 4 years (Option D) do not align with the specific 2025 reinstatement mentioned in the question.

From the conditions: C is above A, and four boxes are between A and E, so the order from top could be C, A, _, _, _, _, E. G and F have two boxes between them. B is immediately above D, and F is not above B. Placing G and F with two boxes apart, and B above D, the arrangement from top would be C, A, G, _, F, B, D, E. So, three boxes (G, _, F, B) are below B. Option B is correct. Other options misplace the boxes or miscount the positions.

Marked price (MP) = 821, which is 39% above cost price (CP). So, CP = 821 / (1 + 39/100) = 821 / 1.39 � 591.37. Profit% = 2%, so selling price (SP) = CP * (1 + 2/100) � 591.37 * 1.02 � 603.80. Discount% = (MP - SP)/MP * 100 � (821 - 603.80)/821 * 100 � 26.62%, matching option A. Others are calculation errors.

Bryophyllum plants exhibit vegetative propagation through buds on leaf margins. Option A is correct as these buds develop into new plants. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because vegetative propagation in Bryophyllum does not occur at the leaf tip, flower, or pedicel.