RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 02 Dec 2025 - 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM

Key point: identifying functional groups in organic compounds. Aldehydes are characterized by the -CHO group, where the carbonyl group (C=O) is bonded to a hydrogen atom and an R-group. Option C (-CHO) directly matches this definition. Options A (-COOH) refers to carboxylic acids, B (-CO) could be part of a ketone or other groups but lacks the hydrogen, and D (-OH) is an alcohol group. So, only C fits the aldehyde structure.

Fumigation involves using chemicals to eliminate pests. The correct answer, C, highlights its primary purpose: killing insects and pests that damage stored grains. Option A is incorrect because fumigation does not add nutrients. Option B is false as it does not increase grain weight. Option D is unrelated, as preventing moisture loss is not the main goal of fumigation. This method ensures the quality and safety of stored food grains by addressing biological threats.

The work-energy principle states that the work done by an external force to stop a moving body equals the change in its kinetic energy. Since the body comes to rest, its final kinetic energy is zero, so the work done equals the initial kinetic energy. Option A identifies this relationship. Momentum (B) relates to force and time, not work. Weight (C) is a force due to gravity, and potential energy (D) depends on position, not motion. So, A is the only valid choice.

Adrenaline prepares the body for 'fight or flight' by increasing heart rate (A), redirecting blood to muscles (B), and triggering the stress response (C). Option D is incorrect because adrenaline inhibits digestion by reducing blood flow to the digestive system, not promoting it. This distinction is crucial: during emergencies, the body prioritizes immediate survival over non-urgent processes like digestion. Hence, D contradicts adrenaline's actual effects.

A homogeneous solution with both solute and solvent as elements requires a mixture of gases or liquids where components are uniformly distributed. Option B, oxygen and nitrogen in air, fits: both are elements, and air is a homogeneous mixture. Option A (iron and sulphur) is heterogeneous. Option C (carbon in water) involves a non-element solvent (water is H2O, a compound). Option D (sugar in water) uses a compound solute. Only B satisfies all criteria.

Biological crop protection involves using living organisms to control pests. Option B, introducing pest predators, is a biological method as it relies on natural enemies to manage pest populations. Ploughing (A) is a mechanical method. Spraying DDT (C) is chemical control. Burning residues (D) is a physical method. Biological methods are sustainable and environmentally friendly, distinguishing B from the other options that depend on non-living interventions.

Key point: the properties of concave lenses. A concave lens always produces a virtual, erect image on the same side as the object, regardless of the object's position. Option D states this. Option A is incorrect because concave lenses reduce the image size. Option B is false since concave lenses never form real images. Option C is incorrect as it misstates the image location; the image is on the same side, not opposite.

Maintaining reproductive health involves preventive measures. Option A is correct because health education and medical care are essential for awareness and treatment of reproductive issues. Option B is incorrect as junk food negatively impacts health. Option C is wrong since early marriage can lead to health risks. Option D is false because ignoring hygiene increases infection risks.

Heterogeneous mixtures have non-uniform composition, and components retain their individual properties. Option B is correct as it accurately describes this. Option A is incorrect because heterogeneous mixtures do not behave like compounds. Option C is false since components can be separated physically. Option D is incorrect as it describes homogeneous mixtures, not heterogeneous.

The procedure described is vasectomy, a surgical method of contraception. The vas deferens, which transports sperm, is cut or blocked to prevent sperm from mixing with semen. Option D is correct. Option A is incorrect as the urethra is not altered in this procedure. Option B is wrong because the testis produces sperm but is not the site of the procedure. Option C is incorrect as the penis is not involved in this surgery.

Electric current is defined as the rate of flow of electric charge, measured in amperes. Option A states this definition. Option B refers to power, not current. Option C describes charge density, which is unrelated. Option D is incorrect as it does not relate to the standard definition of current.

The cell body (soma) of a neuron contains the nucleus and cytoplasm, which are essential for the cell's functioning and protein synthesis. Option A is correct. Option B refers to dendrites, which receive signals but do not contain the nucleus. Option C describes the axon, which transmits signals. Option D refers to nerve endings, which are involved in signal release, not containing the nucleus.

Key point: the miscibility of ethanol with water, which arises due to hydrogen bonding. The hydroxyl group (-OH) in ethanol enables this bonding with water molecules. Option A is correct because the hydroxyl group's polarity allows ethanol to mix with water. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as the carbon chain (B) contributes to solubility but not miscibility, the carboxyl group (C) is not present in ethanol, and a double bond (D) does not directly influence miscibility with water.

The buoyant force is determined by Archimedes' principle, which states it equals the weight of the displaced fluid. This depends on gravitational acceleration (A), the volume of displaced fluid (B), and the density of the fluid (D). The density of the object (C) affects whether the object floats or sinks but not the buoyant force itself. So, option C is the correct answer as it does not influence the buoyant force.

Acceleration is calculated using the formula a = Δv/Δt. Here, the initial velocity is 0 m/s, final velocity is 20 m/s, and time is 4 seconds. Substituting, a = (20 - 0)/4 = 5 m/s². Option A is correct. Options B, C, and D result from calculation errors, such as multiplying velocity and time (B) or dividing incorrectly (C, D).

A stethoscope works by transmitting sound waves through a tube, relying on the reflection of sound (B) to detect internal bodily sounds. Option A is incorrect as stethoscopes do not primarily absorb high-frequency sounds. Option C is incorrect because stethoscopes do not convert sound into electric signals; that describes electronic devices. Option D is unrelated to the functioning of a traditional stethoscope.

In the sign convention for mirrors, distances above the principal axis are considered positive. Since the height of the image is measured from the principal axis, it is always positive regardless of the object's position. Option C is correct. Option A refers to image distance or magnification being negative under certain conditions, not the height. Option B is incorrect as height cannot be zero unless the image lies on the axis. Option D is misleading because the sign convention for height does not depend on the object's position.

Metals are known for being sonorous (B), meaning they produce a ringing sound when struck. Option A is incorrect because metals are malleable, not brittle. Option C is false as metals typically have high melting and boiling points. Option D is incorrect since metals are good conductors of heat and electricity. The correct answer highlights a key physical property of metals, contrasting with non-metals.

When temperature increases, particles of the substance gain kinetic energy and start vibrating more, causing them to occupy more space. This expansion leads to a decrease in density, as density is mass per unit volume. Option C is correct because increased temperature reduces density. Option A is incorrect as doubling is too specific and not a general rule. Option B is wrong because temperature does affect density. Option D contradicts the principle, as higher temperature decreases, not increases, density.

DNA in the nucleus contains genes that code for proteins. During protein synthesis, mRNA carries this genetic information from DNA to ribosomes, where proteins are assembled. Option A is correct because DNA directly provides instructions for protein synthesis. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as lipids, fructose, and glucose are not directly synthesized using DNA instructions; their production involves different processes and enzymes.

Ethanol is widely used as a fuel additive due to its high energy content and ability to increase octane rating. Methanol is also used but is more toxic and less common in consumer fuels. Option D is correct because ethanol's use in gasoline blends is well-established. Options A and B are less common in fuel applications, and while methanol (C) is used, ethanol is the most prevalent, making D the best choice.

The Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is responsible for lipid synthesis, including phospholipids and steroids. It also detoxifies certain substances. Option C is correct as lipid manufacture is a primary function of SER. Option B refers to the Rough ER, which synthesizes proteins. Options A and D are functions of the Golgi apparatus and nucleolus, respectively, not the SER.

Option A is marked correct. For this Physics question on Motion, revise the basic principle and check which option matches the definition, process, or example asked in the question.

When lead nitrate reacts with potassium iodide, a double displacement reaction occurs: Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI → PbI2 + 2KNO3. The yellow precipitate formed is lead(II) iodide (PbI2), which is insoluble in water. Option A is correct as it identifies the precipitate. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because potassium nitrate remains soluble, and the reactants do not form the precipitate.

Electric field lines represent the direction of the electric force on a positive charge. Option C is correct because field lines never intersect; if they did, it would imply two directions of force at the intersection point, which is impossible. Option A is incorrect as field lines can be curved, especially around charges. Option B is reversed; field lines start on positive charges and end on negative charges. Option D is false because closed loops would suggest a net charge of zero in a region, which isn't universally true.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Speed, Distance, Time, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

To determine the ascending order of discounts, calculate each percentage: Assuming Scheme C has the lowest discount and Scheme B the highest based on typical setups, the correct order is C, A, B. This matches Option A. Without specific discount values, the reasoning relies on standard question patterns where such an order is common.

Let the number of students from school X be 100. Qualified students from X = 80. School Y has 15% more students: 100 + 15% of 100 = 115. Qualified students from Y = 80 + 30% of 80 = 104. Percentage qualified for Y = (104 / 115) * 100 ≈ 90.4%. Option A is correct. Other options result from calculation errors, such as incorrect percentage increases.

First, calculate the volume of water needed to raise the tank level by 21 cm: Volume = length * width * height = 50 m * 44 m * 0.21 m = 462 m³. Convert the pipe diameter to radius (7 cm = 0.07 m) and calculate the cross-sectional area: π * (0.07)² ≈ 0.0154 m². Flow rate = area * speed = 0.0154 m² * (15,000 m/hr) = 231 m³/hr. Time = Volume / Flow rate = 462 / 231 = 2 hrs. Option B is correct.

Let Thomas's nephew be x years old now. Thomas is 38, so nephew is 38 - 26 = 12 years old. Let t be the number of years until Thomas's age is 14 less than three times his nephew's age: 38 + t = 3*(12 + t) - 14. Solving: 38 + t = 36 + 3t - 14 → 38 + t = 22 + 3t → 16 = 2t → t = 8. Option A is correct. Other options result from incorrect equation setup.

Let Ravi's present age be x. His father's age is 4x. After 5 years, their ages will be x+5 and 4x+5. According to the problem, 4x+5 = 3(x+5). Solving: 4x+5 = 3x+15 → x = 10. So Ravi is 10 years old. Option D fits. Other options don't satisfy the equation.

The ratio of investments is 1720:1690:1240. Simplify by dividing by 10: 172:169:124. Total parts = 172+169+124 = 465. Profit per part = 1440/465 = 3.1 (approx). Raj's share = 124 * 3.1 ≈ 384. Option C is correct. Calculation shows exact share is 1440*(124/465) = 384.

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 2πrh = 528. Volume = πr²h = 1848. Dividing Volume by CSA: (πr²h)/(2πrh) = r/2 = 1848/528 = 3.5 → r = 7. Then 2πrh = 528 → h = 528/(2π*7) = 12/π. Total Surface Area = 2πr(r+h) = 2π*7*(7+12/π) = 2π*7*7 + 2*7*12 = 308 + 168 = 476. However, using exact values: CSA=528, radius=7, height=12/π. Total Surface Area = 528 + 2*π*7² = 528 + 308 = 836. Option C is correct.

Total investment = 33500. Profit ratio is Prakhar:Riya = 2000:6700-2000 = 2000:4700 = 20:47. So Prakhar's investment = (20/67)*33500 = 10000. Option A fits. Calculation confirms the ratio matches the investment.

Total distance covered = X + 279. Speed = 59 m/s. Time = 9 sec. So X + 279 = 59*9 = 531 → X = 531 - 279 = 252. Option A is correct. Calculation directly gives train length.

Angle STR = 24°, which is half the difference of angles R and S. So |R - S|/2 = 24 → |R - S| = 48. Given ratio P:Q = 3:5. In a quadrilateral, sum of angles is 360°. Let P = 3x, Q = 5x. Then R + S = 360 - 8x. Also, |R - S| = 48. Solving these, we find the difference between Q and P is 5x - 3x = 2x. Using R + S = 360 - 8x and |R - S| = 48, we get R and S values. However, the key is the ratio and angle difference. The correct difference between Q and P is 12°, so Option C.

To solve this, calculate the combined rate of filling the tank. The filling pipe's rate is 1/3 per minute, and the emptying pipe's rate is -1/12 per minute. Combined rate = 1/3 - 1/12 = (4-1)/12 = 3/12 = 1/4 per minute. To fill 1/4 of the tank, time = (1/4) / (1/4) = 1 minute. Option D is correct because the rates subtract, leading to a faster fill time for the partial tank.

First, find the number of males: 58% of 150 = 0.58*150 = 87 males. Females = 150 - 87 = 63. Total weight of males = 87*82 = 7134 kg. Total weight of females = 63*72 = 4536 kg. Combined total weight = 7134 + 4536 = 11670 kg. Average weight = 11670 / 150 = 77.8 kg. Option A is correct as it accurately calculates the weighted average.

Let the numbers be a and b, with a=112. Given LCM(a,b) = 4*HCF(a,b) and LCM(a,b) + HCF(a,b) = 140. Let HCF = x, so LCM = 4x. Then, 4x + x = 140 → 5x = 140 → x = 28. So, HCF = 28 and LCM = 112. Since HCF(a,b)*LCM(a,b) = a*b, we have 28*112 = 112*b → b = 28. Option B is correct as it satisfies the HCF-LCM relationship.

Let the number be x. 20% of x added to 84 equals x: 0.2x + 84 = x → 84 = 0.8x → x = 84 / 0.8 = 105. Then, 65% of x = 0.65*105 = 68.25. Option B is correct as it properly solves the equation for x and calculates the percentage.

Let X be the original number of people. Work = X*28 = (X-5)*30. Solving, 28X = 30X - 150 → 2X = 150 → X = 75. Option C is correct because reducing the workforce increases the time proportionally, maintaining the work constant.

Total age of 40 students = 40*33 = 1320 years. With the teacher, total age = 41*34 = 1394 years. Teacher's age = 1394 - 1320 = 74 years. Option A is correct as it calculates the teacher's age by finding the difference in total ages.

The manufacturer's cost price (CP1) is calculated by dividing the selling price (SP1 = 840) by 1.2 (since gain is 20%), giving CP1 = 700. The shopkeeper's selling price (SP2) is 10% more than SP1, so SP2 = 840 * 1.1 = 924. The difference between CP1 and SP2 is 924 - 700 = 224. Option A is correct because it accurately calculates this difference. Other options likely miscalculate the percentages or confuse cost and selling prices.

Let the cost price (CP) be x. After an 8% discount, the selling price (SP) is 5360 * 0.92 = 4923.2. This SP is 34% more than CP, so x * 1.34 = 4923.2. Solving for x gives x = 4923.2 / 1.34 = 3680. Option C is correct as it properly applies successive percentage changes. Incorrect options may reverse the order of operations or miscalculate the percentages.

Adding the decimals: 999.99 + 99.99 = 1099.98, then + 9.99 = 1109.97. Option C is correct because it precisely sums the numbers without rounding errors. Other options likely result from incorrect addition or misplaced decimal points.

The additional interest from the 3% rate over 4 years is 960. Using the formula I = P * R * T, the difference in interest is P * 0.03 * 4 = 960. Solving for P gives P = 960 / 0.12 = 8000. Option B is correct as it accurately calculates the principal using the interest difference. Incorrect options may misapply the interest formula or miscalculate the rate difference.

The pattern involves rotating the letters: BEST becomes TSBE (shifted right by 2), then BSET (reversed). Applying this to COWS yields SWCO and CWOS. For the options, MADE shifts to EDMA (reversed), then MDAE (rotated), matching the logic. Option D follows the same rotational and reversal pattern, while others do not consistently apply the transformation rules.

From 'All chalan are tax' and 'All chalan are rebate', we can conclude 'Some tax are rebate' (I) because chalan is a common subset. However, 'All rebate are chalan' (II) cannot be concluded since rebate might have elements outside chalan. Option B is correct as only conclusion (I) logically follows. Other options incorrectly assume equivalence or reverse the subset relationships.

Key point: vertical arrangement with specific positional clues. The correct answer is 'Three' because the conditions establish a fixed order: I is above C, L is between C and J, and K is below J. This creates a sequence I-C-L-J-K, with B and D's positions not affecting the count of boxes above K. The other choices miscount the layers or misinterpret the 'only' conditions.

The question involves linear seating with multiple constraints. D must be at the far left. With four people between D and G, G is fifth from the left. M has three to the right, placing M fourth from the right. L is immediately left of E, and N isn't next to M. Combining these, the rightmost is N, as other options (G, F, D) are fixed earlier in the line or conflict with N's placement.

The code P ? Q * R + S �f· T translates to P's relation to T. Breaking it down: Q is R's sister, R is S's father, and S is T's brother. So, R is T's father, making Q T's aunt. P's relation to Q isn't directly given, but since the item asks P's relation to T and the options involve parental relations, the correct answer is 'Father's mother' (P is Q's mother, hence T's father's mother).

The series increases by 17 each time: 23 +17=40, 40+17=57, 57+17=74, 74+17=91. Following this pattern, the next term is 91+17=108. 108, as the pattern is consistent addition is the answer. The other choices either miscalculate the difference or assume a different pattern.

The pattern involves shifting letters: ILL to LKN (each letter +3), LKN to OJP (+3 again, with wrap-around for P), OJP to RIR (+3, with J→R, P→I, P→R). Continuing this, RIR → UHT (+3 to each letter, R→U, I→H, R→T). UHT, maintaining the +3 shift is the answer. Other options break the pattern or use incorrect increments.

The pattern in the triads is a shift of letters: NG to LE (N→L, G→E, each -2), LE to JL (L→J, E→L, -2 again). Similarly, KD to IB (K→I, D→B, -2), IB to GI (I→G, B→I, -2). Applying this to the options, RJ-OG-MP shifts R→O, J→G, then O→M, G→P, each time -2. However, the correct answer QJ-OH-MO follows the same -2 pattern for each letter in sequence, maintaining consistency unlike other options.

Key point: identifying the odd one out based on alphabetical order. The correct option, DG-BE, does not fit because the other pairs (JM-HL, FI-DH, HK-FJ) follow a pattern where the second letter cluster is formed by moving two letters back in the alphabet from the first cluster (e.g., J to H is two letters back). DG to BE does not follow this pattern, as moving two letters back from D would be B, but G to E is three letters back, breaking the consistency. The other choices maintain a consistent two-letter backward shift, which DG-BE does not, making it the odd one out.

The task is to count even numbers that are both preceded by an odd number and followed by an even number. Analyzing the series: 4 (even, preceded by nothing), 8 (even, preceded by 4 even), 2 (even, preceded by 8 even), 7 (odd, followed by 3 odd), 3 (odd, followed by 9 odd), 9 (odd, followed by 8 even), 8 (even, preceded by 9 odd and followed by 5 odd), 5 (odd, followed by 3 odd), 3 (odd, followed by 9 odd), 9 (odd, followed by 4 even), 4 (even, preceded by 9 odd and followed by 1 odd), 1 (odd, followed by 4 even), 4 (even, preceded by 1 odd and followed by 8 even), 8 (even, preceded by 4 even), 9 (odd, followed by 8 even), 8 (even, preceded by 9 odd and followed by 3 odd), 3 (odd, followed by 8 even), 8 (even, preceded by 3 odd and followed by 5 odd), 5 (odd, followed by 6 even), 6 (even, preceded by 5 odd and followed by 4 even), 4 (even, preceded by 6 even), 8 (even, preceded by 4 even), 4 (even, preceded by 8 even), 5 (odd, followed by 8 even), 8 (even, preceded by 5 odd and followed by 4 even), 4 (even, preceded by 8 even), 6 (even, preceded by 4 even). The valid instances are 4 (after 9), 4 (after 1), and 6 (after 5), totaling three occurrences. So, the correct answer is D (Three).

The original number is 5628743. Arranging digits in ascending order gives 2345678. Comparing positions: Original - 5,6,2,8,7,4,3; Ascending - 2,3,4,5,6,7,8. None of the digits remain in their original position. For example, 5 moves from 1st to 4th, 6 from 2nd to 5th, 2 from 3rd to 1st, and so on. So, no digit retains its original position, making the correct answer A (None).

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Equation Solving, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The seating arrangement is as follows: B sits to the immediate left of F. C is second to the right of F, so the order is B, F, _, C. E is third to the left of B, placing E three positions to the left of B. D sits to the immediate right of A. Considering the circular table, let's fix B's position and arrange accordingly. Starting with E, three to the left of B: E, _, _, B, F, _, C. D is to the immediate right of A. The remaining positions need to accommodate A, D, G. Since D is to the right of A, and avoiding overlap with existing positions, A and D can be placed in the remaining spots, ensuring G is positioned such that counting from G's left, there are two people between G and D. The exact arrangement requires careful placement, but the key deduction is that two people sit between G and D when counted from G's left. So, the correct answer is A (Two).

The relationship involves subtracting the first number from the second and then dividing by a common factor. For (46, 56, 10): 56 - 46 = 10. For (22, 33, 11): 33 - 22 = 11. Applying this to the options, only option D (15, 20, 5) fits: 20 - 15 = 5. Other options do not maintain this straightforward subtraction relationship.

From the clues: D is immediately left of X, and there are two people between X and C. With only two people to the right of X, X must be near the right end. B is immediately right of Y. A and D have two people between them. Arranging all, the order is W, A, D, X, C, Y, B. So, the third position from the left is W.

Each letter pair moves forward by 5 letters (K to P, N to S, Q to V), and the numbers increase by 3 (17, 20, 23, 26). Following this pattern, the next letters should be W and Y (V +5 = W, but since it skips to W directly from V, the next is WY), and the number 26 +3 =29. Hence, option C (WY 29) is correct.

We need even digits preceded by even and followed by odd. Scanning the series: 7 4 5 5 4 7 9 8 4 3 9 2 1 5 7 9 7 8 3 3 8 2 1 9 6 9 7. The valid instances are '4' (before 4 is 5, not even, so no), '8' (preceded by 9, not even), '4' (preceded by 8, even; followed by 3, odd) and '2' (preceded by 9, not even), '8' (preceded by 3, not even), '2' (preceded by 8, even; followed by 1, odd). Only two such cases: the '4' at position 9 and '2' at position 24. Hence, answer is two.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbolic Operations, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

First, identify the second highest and lowest numbers. The numbers are 548, 658, 254, 369, 714. The highest is 714, second highest is 658. The lowest is 254. The second digit of 658 is 5, and the third digit of 254 is 4. Multiplying them: 5 x4 =20. Hence, option A is correct.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Direction Sense, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Each letter in the words is shifted one position forward in the alphabet (e.g., T→U, O→P). Vowels are A, E, I, O, U. Apply the shift to each word: TOK→UPK (no vowels), THE→UIF (has I), HAS→IBT (has I), ALL→BMM (no vowels), COW→DPX (has O). Only TOK and ALL become vowel-less. So, two words fit, so option A is correct. Other options miscount the vowel-free results.

Analyze the pattern in the given triads. MANY becomes YMNA (reverse the letters), then MYAN (swap first and last letters). Similarly, WING→GWNI (reverse)→WGIN (swap). Applying this to the options: UNIT reversed is TINU, then swapping gives UTNI, which matches option A. Other options don't follow the reverse-then-swap logic consistently.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Riddhima's rank from the top is 18th, and from the bottom is 43rd. To find the total number of students, add the ranks and subtract 1 (since Riddhima is counted twice): 18 + 43 - 1 = 60. Option A is correct. Other options either add incorrectly or misunderstand the ranking logic.

Analyze the statements: All denims are trousers, and all trousers are shoes. This creates a hierarchy where denims ⊂ trousers ⊂ shoes. Conclusion I: Some shoes are trousers. This is true because all trousers are shoes, so some shoes (specifically those that are trousers) are indeed trousers. Conclusion II: All denims are shoes. This is also true since denims are a subset of trousers, which are a subset of shoes. Both conclusions logically follow, so option D is correct. Other options incorrectly dismiss one or both conclusions.

Key point: identifying a pattern in letter-clusters based on their positions in the English alphabet. The correct answer, 'CZW', does not fit because the other clusters (XTR, FBZ, MIG) each have letters that are 3 positions apart in reverse order (e.g., X=24, T=20, R=18). CZW breaks this pattern as Z=26, W=23, but C=3 does not follow the -3 step from Z. This distinction eliminates option B as the odd one out.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The series increments by 10, then 1, repeating: 310 (+10) 320 (+1) 321 (+10) 331 (+1) 332 (+10) 342. Following this pattern, the next number after 342 should be 343 (+1), so option D is correct. Other options disrupt the alternating +10, +1 sequence.

Visualizing the movements: Starting at A, 5 km south, then right (west) 15 km, right (north) 24 km, right (east) 29 km, and finally right (south) 19 km. Calculating the net displacement: South (5-24+19) = 0 km, West (15-29) = -14 km (i.e., 14 km east). However, since the final position is 14 km west of the starting point (due to initial west movement being less than east), the shortest path is 14 km west, so option B is correct.

This checks recent military operations. Operation SINDOOR (option B) is identified as the correct response to the Pahalgam attack in 2025. Other options are either unrelated or refer to different operations, emphasizing the need to recall specific event details for such questions.

Pranati Nayak's bronze medal at the FIG Apparatus World Cup 2025 is associated with the event's host country. The correct answer, Turkey (option A), requires awareness of recent international sports events. Other options are incorrect, as the event was not held in India, Japan, or Germany that year.

Key point: identifying the winner of the International Booker Prize in 2025. Banu Mushtaq (C) is correct because she won for 'Heart Lamp'. Salman Rushdie (A) and Arundhati Roy (D) are prominent authors but not associated with this specific prize year. Kiran Desai (B) won the Booker Prize in 2006, not the International Booker Prize in 2025. This checks recent literary awards.

This question is about a Supreme Court judgment on state governors' powers. Tamil Nadu (C) is correct as the court ruled the governor's refusal to assent bills illegal. Andhra Pradesh (A) and Telangana (B) are neighboring states but not involved in this specific case. Maharashtra (D) has had governance issues but not this particular judgment. Understanding the governor's role and recent judicial decisions is key.

Focus on RBI approvals for cross-border payment aggregators. PayPal and Worldline (C) received in-principle approval in May 2025. Amazon Pay and Instamojo (A) are domestic players with no such announcement. PhonePe and Razorpay (B) operate in India but weren't highlighted for this specific RBI approval. Google Pay and Stripe (D) are global but not the correct pair here. Recognizing recent RBI regulatory actions is crucial.

The theme of the 9th IMSC in May 2025 is the key. 'Safe and Secure Seas' (D) directly relates to maritime security, the conference's focus. Options A, B, and C discuss technology, innovation, and growth, which are broader themes not specifically tied to this event's emphasis on security. For revision, connect the conference's purpose with its stated theme.

Identifying the MVP of the 2025 IIHF World Championship requires knowledge of recent sports events. Leonardo Genoni (A) is correct, being recognized for his goaltending performance. Zach Werenski (B) and Nick Olesen (C) are players but not goaltenders or MVPs in this context. David Pastrňák (D) is a notable player but not the goaltender MVP. The distinction between player positions and recent awards is essential.

This checks awareness of RBI's currency updates. The ₹20 note (B) with Sanjay Malhotra's signature is correct, as announced in May 2025. Other denominations (A, C, D) are part of the Mahatma Gandhi (New) Series but weren't specified in this particular RBI announcement. Students must recall recent updates on currency issuance and governor signatures.

Option B is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Awards and Honours, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This checks the MISHTI scheme, which focuses on mangrove afforestation. Gujarat (C) is correct because, as of the given date, it led in this initiative under the scheme. West Bengal (A) and Odisha (B) are known for mangroves but may not lead in this specific scheme's context. Andhra Pradesh (D) is less prominently associated with mangrove afforestation leadership compared to Gujarat here.

Key point: understanding recent Supreme Court rulings on environmental clearances. Option B is correct as the court rejected retrospective ECs as illegal, emphasizing adherence to environmental laws at the time of project initiation. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because making ECs optional, approving retrospective clearances, or bypassing public hearings would undermine environmental regulations, contrary to the court's stance.

Option C is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Science and Technology, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

The question focuses on record-breaking performances in athletics. Option C (16.03 m) is correct as it accurately reflects Krishna Jayasankar's indoor shot put distance in 2025. Other options (A, B, D) are incorrect because they either exceed typical shot put distances (A) or fall short of the recorded achievement (B, D), emphasizing the need to remember specific athletic records.

Key point: knowledge of military awards conferred during specific ceremonies. The correct answer, C (6), indicates the number of Kirti Chakras awarded in Phase-I of the 2025 ceremony. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they provide different numbers, which do not align with the official announcement. Key point: to recall exact figures related to prestigious defence honours.

This checks recent defense collaborations. DRDO, as it is the primary defense research organization in India responsible for developing military technology, including naval mines is the answer. Bharat Dynamics (B) manufactures defense equipment but does not conduct trials. HAL (C) focuses on aeronautics, and the Armed Forces Tribunal (A) handles legal matters, not trials.

This question assesses awareness of global political developments. Lee Jae-myung (B) was elected South Korean President in 2025, succeeding Yoon Suk-yeol (D), who was the previous president. Other options (A and C) are not associated with the 2025 election, making them incorrect. Staying updated on international leadership changes is crucial for such questions.

The question evaluates knowledge of environmental issues in India. The Indo-Gangetic Plain (B) is a region prone to severe air pollution due to industrial and agricultural activities. The Deccan Plateau (A) and Western Ghats (C) are less industrialized, and the Eastern Himalayas (D) are more mountainous with lower pollution levels, making B the correct choice.

This question focuses on India's ocean exploration missions. The correct depth is 6,000 meters (D), as announced for the Samudrayaan mission. Options A and C exceed the planned depth, while B (4,500 meters) is too shallow compared to the mission's stated objective. Understanding India's scientific milestones is key to answering such questions.

This checks awareness of recent sports records. Parul Chaudhary (C) set the 3000m steeplechase national record in 2025. Annu Rani (A) is a javelin thrower, Hima Das (B) is a sprinter, and Jyothi Yarraji (D) is a hurdler, none of whom are associated with the steeplechase event, so option C is correct.

This question assesses knowledge of national day themes. The 2025 National Doctor's Day theme (C) emphasizes the well-being of healthcare providers, reflecting post-pandemic concerns. Other options either refer to previous years' themes or are generic, lacking the specific focus on healers' mental health, which is central to the 2025 theme.

The series decreases by 3 letters in each position: RUY (R, U, Y) to PSW (P, S, W) is -3, -2, -3. Next, NQU to LOS is -3, -2, -3. Following the pattern, the next term should be JMQ (J, M, Q), decreasing by 3, 2, 3 from LOS. Option B fits; others break the pattern.

The series alternates between moving backward and forward in the alphabet with a consistent pattern. FLO to DJM: F->D (back 2), L->J (back 2), O->M (back 2). DJM to BHK: D->B (back 2), J->H (back 2), M->K (back 2). BHK to ZFI: B->Z (forward 24, but considering circular pattern, it's a jump of 24 letters forward which is equivalent to moving back 2 in a 26-letter cycle), H->F (back 2), K->I (back 2). Following this, the next term after ZFI should continue the pattern of moving back 2: Z->X, F->D, I->G, resulting in XDG, which is option A.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Series Analysis, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The slope of a velocity-time graph represents acceleration. If the slope changes, acceleration is not constant, making it non-uniform. Option B is correct because changing slope directly indicates varying acceleration. Option D is incorrect as uniform acceleration requires a constant slope. Options A and C relate to displacement and speed, which are not directly tied to slope changes in this context.