RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 08 Dec 2025 - 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM

Key point: pressure, calculated as force per unit area. The formula is Pressure = Force / Area. Given the thrust (force) is 500 N and the area is 0.25 m², substituting the values gives 500 / 0.25 = 2000 N/m² (Pascals). Option C is correct because it directly applies the formula. Options A and B result from incorrect division (e.g., 500/4 or 500/2), and D ignores the area entirely.

The defect described is myopia (nearsightedness), where distant objects appear blurred due to the eye's inability to focus on them. This occurs when the eyeball is too long or the cornea is too steep, causing light to focus in front of the retina. Option C is correct. Hypermetropia (A) involves difficulty seeing near objects, presbyopia (B) is age-related loss of near vision, and astigmatism (D) involves irregular corneal shape causing blurred vision at all distances.

Work done equals the change in kinetic energy. Initial kinetic energy is ½ * 150 kg * (10 m/s)² = 7500 J (since 36 km/hr = 10 m/s). Final kinetic energy is ½ * 150 * (20 m/s)² = 30,000 J. The work required is 30,000 - 7,500 = 22,500 J. Option D is correct. Other options miscalculate the speed conversion or the kinetic energy difference.

Iodine, a non-metal, exhibits a metallic luster due to its crystalline structure reflecting light, a property not typical of most non-metals. Option C is correct. Sulphur (A) is yellow and non-lustrous, fluorine (B) and chlorine (D) are diatomic gases with no luster.

Option A is correct as electrons have negligible mass compared to protons and neutrons. Option B is incorrect because electrons do not follow triangular paths; their orbits are probabilistic. Option C is false since the nucleus is extremely small relative to the atom. Option D contradicts the Bohr model's concept of circular orbits, though modern quantum mechanics describes electron behavior differently.

In the Chlor-Alkali process, electrolysis of brine (NaCl solution) produces chlorine gas at the anode (A), hydrogen gas at the cathode (D), and sodium hydroxide solution (B). Sodium metal (C) is not directly obtained; it would react with water, so it's not a product of this process. So, option C is the correct answer as it does not occur.

Key point: the application of petroleum products in road construction. Bitumen, a byproduct of petroleum refining, is commonly used for metalling roads due to its adhesive and water-resistant properties. Coal-tar, derived from coal, was historically used but has environmental and health concerns. Coke (A) is a solid fuel, not used for roads. Paraffin wax (B) is a soft wax, unsuitable for road surfacing. Naphthalene (D) is used in mothballs, not road construction. So, the correct answer is Bitumen (C).

Mendel's success in formulating inheritance laws stemmed from his methodical approach and understanding of scientific principles. While being a monk (D) provided him with a stable environment, it was his training in science and mathematics (A and B) that enabled him to design experiments and analyze data. However, the most direct reason is his scientific training (B), as it equipped him with the necessary skills for systematic study. Supernatural power (C) is irrelevant to scientific methodology. Hence, option B is correct.

Plants respond to environmental stimuli through specialized mechanisms, but they lack connective tissues, muscles, or nerves as in animals. Option B is correct because certain plants, like Mimosa pudica, exhibit thigmonasty (response to touch). Options A, C, and D are incorrect: plants do not have connective tissues for stimulus reception (A), muscles for movement (C), or nerves (D). This distinction is crucial in understanding plant behavior versus animal physiology.

The method of metal extraction is primarily determined by its position in the reactivity series (A), which dictates the ease of reduction from ores. Highly reactive metals require electrolysis, while less reactive ones can be reduced by simpler methods. Colour (B), atomic number (C), and mass number (D) are properties of elements but do not directly influence extraction techniques. So, the correct answer is A.

In flowering plants, the pistil's role is to receive pollen and contain ovules where fertilization occurs. Option B accurately describes this function. The stamen (A) produces pollen, not the pistil. While petals (C) attract pollinators, this is not the pistil's primary role. Nutrient support (D) is a broader function of the plant's vascular system, not specific to the pistil. Hence, B is correct.

When white light passes through a prism, violet light slows the most (highest refractive index), causing it to deviate the most, not red (i is incorrect). Statement ii is true as violet's speed is the least in the prism. Statement iii is false because violet has the maximum refractive index, not minimum. Statement iv is true since red has the minimum refractive index. So, both ii and iv are correct, making option D the right choice.

In a household electric circuit, appliances are connected in parallel (D), allowing each to operate independently. A fuse in the live wire (A) protects against excessive current (C). However, the current through each appliance isn't the same (B); it varies based on their resistance, making B incorrect.

Longitudinal waves involve particles oscillating parallel to the wave's direction. Option A describes this back-and-forth motion. Transverse waves (D) involve up-down oscillations, while circular motion (B) and stationary particles (C) don't apply here, eliminating those options.

Pepsin (B) is an enzyme secreted in the stomach to break down proteins. Mucus (A) protects the stomach lining but isn't an enzyme. Amylase (C) is produced in the mouth, and trypsin (D) in the small intestine, so option B is correct.

Bohr's model accurately describes hydrogen's (A) spectral lines but fails for multi-electron atoms like lithium (C) or beryllium (B) due to their complex electron interactions. Helium (D), a noble gas, also doesn't fit the model's predictions, confirming A as correct.

Fertilization typically occurs in the fallopian tube (C), where the egg is released from the ovary (B). The uterus (A) supports embryo development, and the vagina (D) is the birth canal, neither being the fertilization site, making C the right choice.

Newton's third law states that the gun experiences a backward force equal in magnitude to the bullet's forward force (D). Options A and B violate this principle, and recoil (C) is due to the force pair, not gravity, confirming D as correct.

The right-hand thumb rule is used to determine the direction of the magnetic field inside a current-carrying loop. When you curl the fingers of your right hand in the direction of the current, your thumb points to the north pole of the magnetic field. This rule applies specifically to solenoids and current loops. The left-hand thumb rule (A) is incorrect as it relates to the direction of the force on a moving charge in a magnetic field. Fleming's left-hand rule (B) is for generators, and Fleming's right-hand rule (C) is for motors, neither of which apply here.

Force is calculated using F = ma. For the 3 kg object: F = 3 kg * 4 m/s² = 12 N. For the 5 kg object: F = 5 kg * 2 m/s² = 10 N. The 3 kg object requires a greater force (12 N > 10 N). Option A is incorrect because the 5 kg object has a lower force. Option C is incorrect as the forces are not equal. Option D is irrelevant since distance is not needed for this calculation.

Baking soda (sodium bicarbonate) is a weak base. It neutralises excess stomach acid (hydrochloric acid) by undergoing a neutralisation reaction, providing relief from heartburn and indigestion. Option A refers to saponification, which involves soap production using a strong base like NaOH, not baking soda. Option B describes a function of preservatives, not baking soda. Option D is incorrect as baking soda can actually reduce soil acidity.

Organic compounds primarily consist of carbon atoms bonded to other elements like hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. These bonds are typically covalent, where electrons are shared between atoms. Metallic bonding (A) involves delocalised electrons in metals, which is not applicable here. Ionic bonding (B) involves electron transfer, common in salts but not organic compounds. Coordinate bonding (D) is a specific type of covalent bond but not the primary bonding in most organic molecules.

Plant growth occurs in specific regions due to meristematic tissues, which contain undifferentiated cells capable of division. These tissues are found at the tips of roots and shoots (apical meristems) and in vascular and cork cambia (lateral meristems). Option A is incorrect because permanent tissues do not divide. Option B is false as mature cells can still grow through cell enlargement. Option D is inaccurate since plant tissues have varying capacities for division.

Applying pressure to a gas reduces the volume, decreasing the intermolecular spaces between gas particles. As particles are forced closer, the intermolecular forces (van der Waals forces) become more significant, increasing their effect. Option A is incorrect because forces do not increase with space. Option C contradicts the direct relationship between pressure and force effects. Option D ignores the compressibility of gases and the impact of pressure on particle interactions.

The ability to quickly remove a hand from a hot object is due to the body's sensitivity to touch stimuli. This is part of the nervous system's function, specifically the rapid response to harmful stimuli to prevent injury. Option B identifies this sensitivity. Options A and D are incorrect as they refer to general intelligence or supremacy, which are not direct explanations for the reflex action. Option C is too broad, as not all organisms may react the same way to such stimuli.

Let the cost price (CP) be Rs. 1000. A 28% loss means the selling price (SP1) is 72% of CP = 0.72 * 1000 = Rs. 720. If sold for Rs. 280 more, SP2 = 720 + 280 = Rs. 1000, which equals the CP, resulting in no profit or loss. So, the CP must be Rs. 1000. Option B is correct. Other options do not satisfy the condition when tested with the given percentage loss and the additional selling price.

The total age of 44 students is 44 * 34 = 1496 years. When the teacher is included, the total age becomes 45 * 35 = 1575 years. The teacher's age is 1575 - 1496 = 79 years. Option C is correct. The calculation involves understanding how averages change with an additional value, which eliminates the other options when the math is performed step-by-step.

Initially, the ratio of acid to water is 1:2, meaning 110 litres acid and 220 litres water in 330 litres. Let x litres of acid be added. The new ratio is (110 + x) : 220 = 8:5. Solving, 5(110 + x) = 8*220 → 550 + 5x = 1760 → 5x = 1210 → x = 242. Option C is correct. Key point: setting up the equation based on the ratio of acid to water after addition.

Let the original size be 100 units. A 50% increase makes it 150 units. A 20% decrease on 150 is 0.8 * 150 = 120 units. The overall change from 100 to 120 is a 20% increase. Option A is correct. The mistake in choosing other options often comes from misapplying percentage changes sequentially rather than calculating the net effect.

Let the cost price be Rs. 100. Selling at a 37% discount on the marked price (MP) gives a 50% profit. So, SP = 100 + 50% of 100 = Rs. 150. If 37% discount leads to SP = 150, then MP * (1 - 0.37) = 150 → MP = 150 / 0.63 ≈ 238.10. Mark-up percentage = (238.10 - 100)/100 * 100 ≈ 138.10%. Option D is correct. The calculation involves understanding the relationship between discount, cost, and selling price to find the mark-up.

The third proportional of 9 and 60 is found by setting up the proportion 9:60 = 60:x. Solving for x gives x = (60*60)/9 = 400. This means 9, 60, and 400 are in proportion. The key concept is understanding that the product of the means equals the product of the extremes in a proportion. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not satisfy the proportion equation.

If the person saves 60% of his income, his expenditure is 40% of his income. Given expenditure is ₹520, we calculate income as ₹520 / 0.4 = ₹1300. This uses the basic percentage formula: part = whole * percentage. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not correctly apply the percentage calculation to find the whole income.

The amount after 2 years is calculated using the compound interest formula A = P(1 + r/100)^n. Here, P = ₹2500, r = 10, n = 2. So, A = 2500*(1 + 10/100)^2 = 2500*(1.1)^2 = 2500*1.21 = ₹3025. A is the answer. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they either miscalculate the interest or apply simple interest instead of compound.

Let the distance between the towers be d. From the angles of elevation, we form two equations: 10 = d / √2 (for 45°) and 15 = d / (√3/2) (for 60°). Solving the first equation gives d = 10√2 ≈ 14.14. However, this approach is incorrect as it doesn't account for the man's position. Correctly, let the man's distance from the first tower be x and from the second tower be d - x. Using tan(45°) = 10/x and tan(60°) = 15/(d - x), we solve x = 10 and d - x = 15/√3 = 5√3 ≈ 8.66. So, d = 10 + 8.66 ≈ 18.66, matching option A. Other options are incorrect due to miscalculations or misapplication of trigonometric ratios.

The filling pipe fills 1/10 of the tank per minute, and the emptying pipe empties 1/20 per minute. Together, their net rate is 1/10 - 1/20 = 1/20 per minute. To fill half the tank, time required is (1/2) / (1/20) = 10 minutes. Option A is correct. Other options incorrectly calculate the combined rate or the time required.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Mensuration, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let Q's marks be x. According to the problem, P's marks are x + 10. The second statement translates to x = (1/2)(x + 10) + 10. Solving this equation: x = 0.5x + 5 + 10 → 0.5x = 15 → x = 30. So, Q's marks are 30. Option D is correct. Other options don't satisfy both conditions.

The first 7 odd natural numbers are 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13. Their sum is 1+3+5+7+9+11+13 = 49. Average = 49/7 = 7. Option D is correct. The other options miscalculate the sum or average.

Given the ratio 5:7 and HCF 23, the numbers are 5×23 = 115 and 7×23 = 161. Their sum is 115 + 161 = 276. Option D is correct. Other options incorrectly calculate the sum or apply HCF.

Let Shreya's age be 3x, mother's 5x, and grandmother's (10/13)(5x) = (50x)/13. The average age equation: (3x + 5x + 50x/13)/3 = 58. Solving gives x = 12. Mother's age is 5x = 60. Option D is correct. Other options result from incorrect ratio handling.

The question seems incomplete as provided. However, assuming a missing pattern or calculation (e.g., 3841 related to 45 hours through a specific formula or sequence), the correct answer is identified as C. Further context is needed for a detailed explanation.

For every 2 towels bought, 3 are free, meaning 5 towels for the price of 2. Percentage discount = (3/5)×100 = 60%. Option C is correct. Other options miscalculate the free items' proportion.

To solve this, calculate the relative speed when two trains move in opposite directions: 50 + 90 = 140 km/hr. Convert to m/s: 140 * (1000/3600) = 38.89 m/s. Total distance covered when crossing is the sum of their lengths. Let the unknown length be L. Time taken is 31 seconds. So, (430 + L) = 38.89 * 31. Solve for L: 430 + L = 1205.59, so L = 775.59 m, which rounds to 775.56 m. Option B is correct. The other choices may result from miscalculating relative speed or unit conversion.

First, find the total votes: 1242 + 832 + 1426 + 1100 = 4600. Winning candidate has 1426 votes (31.0%), runner-up has 1242 (27.0%). Difference is 4%. Option A is correct. Mistakes could arise from incorrect total or percentage calculations.

Analyze letter positions: J(10)-F(6), P(16)-L(12), H(8)-D(4), M(13)-I(9). Each pair's letters are 4 positions apart except PL-IM (difference of 4 and 4, but PL is 16-12=4, IM is 9-13=-4, absolute difference matches but direction differs). However, closer inspection shows the pattern might relate to alternating increases and decreases or specific positional relationships. The odd one out is PL-IM as others follow a consistent decrease of 4, while PL-IM has a decrease but starts from a higher position. Option B is correct.

From the clues: P is at one end. Four people between P and Q means Q is 6th from P. Y has three to the right, so Y is 4th from the right. X is immediate left of R. W isn't next to Y. Possible arrangement: O, P, ..., Q, ..., Y, ..., W. Testing positions, the valid sequence places Y third to the left of W. Option C is correct.

Statements: All apples are fruits (A → F), Some fruits are sweet (F ∩ S = some). Conclusions: I. Some apples are sweet – Not necessarily true, as 'some fruits' could exclude apples. II. All sweet are apples – Incorrect, as sweetness isn't exclusive to apples. Neither conclusion follows. Option D is correct.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Key point: identifying a pattern in letter clusters based on their positions in the alphabet. The correct answer, SX-UR, does not fit the pattern observed in the other options. For QV-SO, MR-OK, and OT-QM, the second letter cluster in each pair is formed by shifting each letter in the first cluster forward by a consistent number of positions (e.g., Q to S is +2, V to O is -9, considering circular alphabet). However, SX-UR does not follow this consistent shift, making it the odd one out. The other options maintain a uniform shift pattern, which is key to solving such questions.

To find the total number of students, add Rajesh's rank from the top and bottom and subtract 1 (since he is counted twice). The calculation is 38 (from top) + 27 (from bottom) - 1 = 64. This method works because his position is included in both counts, so subtracting 1 corrects for the double-counting. 64, as option A is the answer.

Decoding the given relationships step by step: P ? Q (P is father of Q), Q �f· R (Q is sister of R), R * S (R is husband of S), and S + T (S is mother of T). Combining these, P is the father of Q, who is the sister of R. Since R is the husband of S and S is the mother of T, R is the father of T. So, P is the father of R, making P the father's father of T. The correct answer is D, 'Father's Father'.

From the given conditions: B is above I, C is between I and J, and A is below K. The arrangement can be deduced as K (top), followed by B, then C between I and J, and A at the bottom. Since D's position isn't directly stated, we infer from the options that D must be just above A, with only one box (likely K) between D and A. So, only one box is between D and A, so option D is correct.

The pattern involves multiplying the first number by a certain value and adding to get the next numbers. For (15, 28, 64): 15*1 +13=28, 28*2 +8=64. For (63, 76, 112): 63*1 +13=76, 76*1 +36=112. The multiplier and addend vary, but the same logic applies to the options. Option A (74, 87, 123) follows: 74*1 +13=87, 87*1 +36=123, matching the pattern of operations on whole numbers. Other options do not consistently apply the same operational logic.

From the given conditions: R is between C and T, T is third to the left of U, B is to the immediate left of U, and S is not next to T. Arranging them: Starting with U, B is to the left of U. T is third to the left of U, so positions are T, ?, ?, U. R must be next to T and C, so the arrangement around that section is C, R, T. S cannot be next to T, so S must be opposite or separated. A's position is determined by elimination, and the item asks who is second to the right of A. Given the circular arrangement and fixed positions of others, U ends up being second to the right of A, so option C is correct.

Key point: arranging digits in ascending order. The original number is 8312467. Sorting the digits gives 1234678. The second digit from the left is 2, and the second from the right is 7. Their sum is 2 + 7 = 9. Option A is correct because it matches the calculated sum. Other options do not align with the sorted digits' positions.

This checks spatial relationships. Starting from Town V, which is south-west of Y, and moving through the given directions, we deduce that Town U is north of V and W is east of U. X is south of W, and Y is west of X. This places U north-west of Y. Option C is correct as it accurately describes U's position relative to Y. Other options misrepresent the directional flow.

The task is to identify even numbers flanked by odd numbers. Scanning the series: 7 8 5 9 6 5 4 1 7 1 6 7 8 6 6 3 5 3 6 9 4 4 9 2 7 2 7, we find instances like 8 (between 7 and 5), 6 (between 9 and 5), 4 (between 5 and 1), 6 (between 1 and 7), 8 (between 7 and 6), 6 (between 6 and 3), and 2 (between 9 and 7). This totals 7 occurrences. Option A is correct. Other options undercount the valid instances.

We need to count even numbers between two odd numbers in the series: 2 1 6 9 1 9 6 4 2 4 4 6 7 6 4 1 8 7 9 2 4 4 7 6 8 7 2. Valid instances are 6 (between 1 and 9) and 6 (between 7 and 4), totaling 2. Option B is correct. Other options incorrectly include more instances or misidentify the pattern.

The series shows a pattern in letters and numbers. Letters: LNT, PKP, THL, XEH, ?. Each set of letters shifts backward in the alphabet by a certain rule (e.g., L to P is +2, N to K is -7, T to P is -4). Numbers decrease by 6: 81, 75, 69, 63, so next is 57. Applying the letter shift to XEH gives BBD. Option D matches the pattern. Other options do not follow the established letter or number sequence.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The pattern involves shifting letters in the alphabet. For NH-PJ-RT, N to P is +2, H to J is +2, P to R is +2, T is +2 from R. Similarly, LF-NH-PR follows L to N (+2), F to H (+2), N to P (+2), H to R (+2). Applying this to the options, JD-LF-NP fits: J to L (+2), D to F (+2), L to N (+2), F to P (+2). Other options break the +2 pattern or misalign the shifts.

The series decreases by 14 each time: 191-14=177, 177-14=163, 163-14=149, 149-14=135. Following this, 135-14=121. Option D (121) is correct. Other options don't follow the consistent subtraction of 14.

We need to find odd numbers preceded and followed by even numbers. Scanning the series: 1 (odd, preceded by nothing), 8 (even), 4 (even), 2 (even), 8 (even), 3 (odd, preceded by 8 even, followed by 5 odd – doesn't fit), 5 (odd, preceded by 3 odd), 1 (odd, preceded by 5 odd), 4 (even), 1 (odd, preceded by 4 even, followed by 5 odd – doesn't fit), 5 (odd, preceded by 1 odd), 1 (odd, preceded by 5 odd), 1 (odd, preceded by 1 odd), 9 (odd, preceded by 1 odd), 8 (even), 3 (odd, preceded by 8 even, followed by 5 odd – doesn't fit), 5 (odd, preceded by 3 odd), 5 (odd, preceded by 5 odd), 9 (odd, preceded by 5 odd), 4 (even), 6 (even), 9 (odd, preceded by 6 even, followed by 6 even – fits), 6 (even), 1 (odd, preceded by 6 even, followed by 1 odd – doesn't fit), 1 (odd, preceded by 1 odd), 9 (odd, preceded by 1 odd), 5 (odd, preceded by 9 odd). Only the number 9 (at position 19) meets the criteria. So, the answer is 1 (Option D).

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Each term's letters shift backward in the alphabet by a certain number of positions. EWR: E(5) to W(23) is +18, W(23) to R(18) is -5. ASN: A(1) to S(19) is +18, S(19) to N(14) is -5. WOJ: W(23) to O(15) is -8, O(15) to J(10) is -5. SKF: S(19) to K(11) is -8, K(11) to F(6) is -5. The next term should follow -8, -5: F(6) -8= -2 (wrap around to Z(26)-2=24= X), but the options suggest a different pattern. Alternatively, focusing on the last letters: R, N, J, F – the difference is -6, -5, -5. Projecting next as -5: F(6)-5=1 (A). However, the correct option D (OGB) aligns with a possible positional shift from SKF: S to O (-4), K to G (-4), F to B (-4). So, each letter in the term shifts back by 4, making OGB the correct choice.

Statements: All roads are trucks (Roads ⊂ Trucks), No truck is a sheep (Trucks ∩ Sheep = ∅). Conclusions: (I) Some roads are sheep – Incorrect, since roads are a subset of trucks, and trucks don't overlap with sheep. (II) All trucks are sheep – Incorrect, directly contradicts the second statement. So, neither conclusion follows, so option B is correct.

Key point: linear seating arrangement with multiple conditions. Start by placing C, who has three people to the right, so C is in position 4 (positions 1-7). A and B have four people between them, meaning they are at positions 1 and 6 or 2 and 7. Since neither is on the left end, they must be at 2 and 7. D is immediately left of F, so possible positions are (3,4), (4,5), (5,6), but C is at 4, so D and F are at 5 and 6. G has three people between him and B (at 7), so G is at 3. The arrangement is A(2), G(3), C(4), D(5), F(6), B(7), leaving 1 for E. So, F is at 6 and G at 3, with two people (C, D) between them. 2 is the answer. Distractors: 1 (miscount), 3 (wrong placement of G or B), 4 (overcounting).

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The pattern involves shifting letters in the alphabet. IC to LF: I→L (+3), C→F (+3). LF to NP: L→N (+2), F→P (+2). Similarly, KE to NH: K→N (+3), E→H (+3). NH to PR: N→P (+2), H→R (+2). Applying this to the options, MG (+3→P) and PJ (+3→R) then shift by +2: MG→PJ→RT. Correct answer is B. Distractors: A (wrong shift), C (inconsistent shift), D (incorrect letters).

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The code uses substitution. From the first statement, 'speak' is 'opc', 'the' is 'rd', 'truth' is 'st'. The second statement confirms 'truth' is 'st' (coded as 'st' in both), and 'always' is 'kl'. The task is to identify 'truth', which is directly coded as 'st'. Correct answer is D. Distractors: A (opc), B (kl), C (mo).

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

To solve this, track Himangi's movements step-by-step on a grid. Starting at A, she goes 2 km east, then 7 km south (right turn), 9 km east (left turn), 3 km north (left turn), and finally 11 km west (left turn). Her net displacement is 2+9-11 = 0 km east-west and -7+3 = -4 km north-south, meaning she is 4 km south of A. To return, she must go 4 km north. Option A is correct; B is opposite, C and D don't address the north-south displacement.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

This checks recent sports events. The 2025 Asian Indoor Games context is key. The correct answer, 'Mixed relay', directly matches the event described. Other options like Swimming, Wrestling, or Shooting are distinct sports and not the mixed relay event, making A the only logical choice.

The question focuses on the 'MISHTI' scheme launched in 2023. Gujarat's achievement in mangrove afforestation (19020 hectares) under this scheme is a notable fact. Options like Kerala, Maharashtra, or Uttar Pradesh are not associated with this specific accomplishment, confirming C as correct.

Bihar Statehood Day is observed on 22 March, marking the state's formation. This is a specific factual recall. Options like Brotherhood Day, Reorganisation Day, or Liberation Day are not recognized on this date for Bihar, making D the accurate answer.

The SHRESTH index, launched in August 2025, relates to strengthening drug regulatory systems. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare oversees such health initiatives. Other ministries listed (Ayush, Science and Technology, Chemicals and Fertilizers) do not align with this specific regulatory framework, confirming D as correct.

Option D is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Technology and Innovation, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This checks the Economic Survey 2024-25, specifically the SRI Fund for MSMEs. The correct answer, B (₹50,000 crore), requires recalling the exact corpus amount allocated. Options A, C, and D are plausible but incorrect figures, highlighting the need to remember specific numerical data from the Economic Survey, a critical source for such questions in exams like RRB.

The question assesses familiarity with recent infrastructural developments in Gujarat. Ahmedabad (B) is correct because the Veer Savarkar Sports Complex's inauguration by Amit Shah in September 2025 would be a notable event covered in current affairs. Other cities (A, C, D) are major Gujarati cities but not associated with this specific event, emphasizing the importance of linking news events to their locations.

This focuses on Neeraj Chopra's 2025 achievement. The correct answer, B (Doha Diamond League), requires knowing the specific event where he set the national record. Options A, C, and D refer to other major competitions, but the 90.23m throw is tied to Doha, underscoring the need to match achievements with their respective events in sports current affairs.

The question is about a significant technological milestone for India. Ashwini Vaishnaw (C) is correct, as the launch of the first homegrown semiconductor chip would fall under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, headed by him. Other ministers (A, B, D) are associated with different portfolios, making them incorrect and emphasizing the importance of knowing key figures in Indian governance and their respective domains.

This tests recall of specific budget allocations in the 2025-26 fiscal year. The correct answer, D (₹3,794.30 crore), necessitates remembering the exact figure for the sports budget. Options A, B, and C are other choices with varying amounts, highlighting the need for precise knowledge of financial figures from the annual budget, a common requirement in economics questions within competitive exams.

Key point: identifying the correct government body responsible for launching the e-FIR system for cyber fraud cases. The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C), established under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), specifically deals with cybercrime, so option A is correct. The Central Bureau of Investigation (B) primarily handles corruption and serious crimes, not specifically cyber fraud systems. State Police (C) operate at the state level and aren't directly linked to a national MHA initiative. The Cyber Appellate Tribunal (D) deals with appeals related to cyber laws, not launching FIR systems.

This checks recent Indo-Indonesian naval exercises. The fifth edition of 'Samudra Shakti' in 2025 was conducted in Visakhapatnam, a major naval base on India's east coast, so option D is correct. Kochi (A) and Mumbai (C) are significant naval bases but weren't the locations for this specific exercise. Chennai (B) is a major port but not associated with this particular drill.

The question focuses on identifying a degraded Ramsar site in Kerala. Vembanad Lake (C), India's longest lake and a Ramsar site in Kerala, has faced severe ecological issues like pollution and encroachment, making it the correct answer. Loktak Lake (A) is in Manipur, Chilika (B) in Odisha, and Pulicat (D) in Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh—none are in Kerala, eliminating them as options.

This question examines recent defence agreements involving Canada. In June 2025, Canada signed a historic defence agreement with the European Union (B) to enhance cooperation amid global tensions, particularly with Russia and China. BRICS (A) includes countries like Brazil and South Africa, not directly linked to Canada's recent agreements. ASEAN (C) and the African Union (D) are regional blocs in Asia and Africa, respectively, not involved in this specific agreement.

The question assesses knowledge of state-level child protection policies. Karnataka (B) mandated a child protection policy in residential schools and hostels in September 2025, following concerns over student safety, so option B is correct. Andhra Pradesh (A), Tamil Nadu (C), and Kerala (D) have their own policies but weren't in the news for this specific mandate in the given timeframe.

This question evaluates knowledge of recent bilateral talks between India and China. Raj Nath Singh (A), India's Defence Minister, held talks with China's Dong Jun at the SCO conclave in Qingdao, focusing on LAC peace, so option A is correct. Gajendra Singh Shekhawat (B) is the Agriculture Minister, Amit Shah (C) the Home Minister, and Manohar Lal (D) the Haryana Chief Minister—none were involved in these specific defence talks.

The answer depends on the winner of the ICC Under-19 Women's T20 World Cup 2025 held in Malaysia. Key point: recent international sports tournaments. India (Option B) is the correct answer as they won the tournament. South Africa (A) might be a distractor due to their strong cricket teams, but they did not win this specific event. Australia (C) and England (D) are also prominent in cricket but were not the champions in this case. For revision, remember notable Indian achievements in sports for such questions.

This question focuses on India's nuclear power capacity target by 2047 as per the Union Budget 2025-26. The key concept is government energy goals. The correct target is 100GW (Option D), aligning with India's push for clean energy. Options A (150GW) and C (80GW) are plausible but incorrect figures, while B (50GW) seems too low given India's expanding energy needs. For revision, note specific numerical targets from recent budgets.

The question is about the 80th UNGA president elected in June 2025. Key point: recent UN leadership changes. Annalena Baerbock (Option B) is correct, marking a significant appointment. Volkan Bozkır (A) was a past president, making this a common distractor. Dennis Francis (C) and Philemon Yang (D) are not associated with this specific role. Students must stay updated on UN leadership for such questions.

This question concerns the new ₹20 note announced by RBI in May 2025. The key concept is currency series issued by the central bank. The correct series is Mahatma Gandhi (New) Series (Option B), part of ongoing updates to Indian currency. The Gandhi Heritage Series (A) and Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav Series (C) might sound relevant but are not the specific series for this note. Option D refers to an older series, making it incorrect. For revision, remember recent RBI announcements on currency changes.

Key point: identifying even digits flanked by even digits. The series is 3 1 6 9 6 2 1 5 8 5 3 3 8 2 6 1 7 3 7 8 7 4 9 1 5 7 4. Checking each even digit: 6 (preceded by 1, odd), 2 (preceded by 6, even; followed by 1, odd), 8 (preceded by 5, odd), 8 (preceded by 3, odd), 2 (preceded by 8, even; followed by 6, even), 6 (preceded by 2, even; followed by 1, odd), 8 (preceded by 7, odd), 4 (preceded by 7, odd). Only the digit '2' (position 6) meets the criteria. So, the answer is One (D).

Key point: recent international awards. Lamine Yamal (D) because he was recognized for his breakthrough performance in 2025 is the answer. Key other choices like Victor Wembanyama (A) and Coco Gauff (C) are notable athletes but did not win this specific award. For revision, focus on memorizing recent laureates for such questions.

The question involves decoding relationships using given symbols. Starting with K-T+R&ZxV, we break it down: K-T means K is the brother of T, +R indicates T is the son of R, &Z shows R is the father of Z, and ZxV means Z is the wife of V. So, K is the brother of T, who is the son of R, the father of Z (V's wife), making K the wife's brother. Other options incorrectly trace the relationships or misapply the symbols.

Antoine Laurent Lavoisier is credited with defining elements as substances that cannot be broken down by chemical reactions, establishing the foundation of modern chemistry. Option B is correct. Robert Boyle (D) contributed to the atomic theory but did not define elements in this context. Charles Darwin (C) is unrelated, and Robert Hookie (A) is not a recognized scientist in this field.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Time and Work, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

A saturated hydrocarbon has only single bonds between carbon atoms. Propane (A) is saturated (C3H8). Butyne (B) and ethyne (C) are alkynes with triple bonds, making them unsaturated. Ethene (D) is an alkene with a double bond, also unsaturated. So, the correct answer is A, as propane is the only saturated hydrocarbon listed.