RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 09 Dec 2025 - 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM

When an object is placed beyond twice the focal length of a convex lens, the image formed is real, inverted, and smaller than the object. This occurs because the lens formula (1/f = 1/v - 1/u) dictates that as the object distance increases beyond 2f, the image distance decreases, leading to a diminished image. Option D is correct because it accurately describes the image characteristics. Options A and B are incorrect as virtual images are not formed by convex lenses for objects placed outside the focal length. Option C is incorrect because the image is smaller, not larger, when the object is beyond 2f.

Testosterone is a male sex hormone primarily secreted by the testes. The testes contain Leydig cells responsible for testosterone production, which regulates male reproductive functions and secondary sexual characteristics. Option B is correct as it directly identifies the testis. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because the fallopian tube, ureter, and uterus are parts of the female reproductive or excretory systems and do not secrete testosterone.

The mass number of an atom is the sum of protons and neutrons in its nucleus. Protons contribute to the atomic number, while neutrons contribute to the mass number without affecting the charge. Option A is correct because it includes both protons and neutrons. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as electrons have negligible mass and do not contribute to the mass number, and protons alone do not account for the total mass.

Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell because they generate ATP through cellular respiration, providing energy for metabolic processes. Option D is correct as it identifies mitochondria. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because lysosomes digest waste, the endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes proteins or lipids, and the nucleus contains genetic material, none of which are directly responsible for ATP production.

Leucoplasts are colorless plastids found in plant cells, often storing food reserves such as starch or lipids. They lack the pigments that give other plastids, like chloroplasts, their color. Option A is correct as leucoplasts are white. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because indigo, orange, and purple are not associated with leucoplasts; these colors may relate to other cell components or pigments.

The earth wire in a domestic circuit provides a safe path for current to flow to the ground if there is a fault, thereby preventing electric shocks. Option C is correct as it highlights the protective role. Option A is incorrect because the earth wire does not supply current under normal conditions. Option B is incorrect as the earth wire does not reduce resistance in the circuit. Option D is incorrect because the earth wire does not increase voltage; it maintains safety.

Key point: plant reproduction methods. Fragmentation allows plants to reproduce by breaking into parts that grow into new individuals. Option D is correct because fragmentation leads to rapid multiplication of plants without the need for seeds or spores. Option A refers to spore dispersal, which is a different method (e.g., in fungi). Option B mentions bud formation, which is related to asexual reproduction but not specifically fragmentation. Option C, genetic diversity, is incorrect because fragmentation produces genetically identical offspring, so it doesn't increase diversity.

This checks Newton's second law, F = ma. The mass (m) is 5 kg, acceleration (a) is 2 m/s². Calculating force: F = 5 kg * 2 m/s² = 10 N. Option C is correct. Option A (7 N) and B (2 N) are miscalculations. Option D (5 N) incorrectly uses only mass, ignoring acceleration.

Saturated hydrocarbons have single bonds only (alkanes). Butane (D) is C4H10, a saturated alkane. Butene (A) and propene (C) are alkenes with double bonds, making them unsaturated. Benzene (B) has a ring structure with alternating double bonds, also unsaturated. So, D is correct.

The question focuses on drought mitigation. Rainwater harvesting (C) directly addresses water storage by capturing rainwater, ensuring supply during dry seasons. Spraying pesticides (A) is irrelevant. Growing short-duration crops (B) is an adaptation but doesn't solve water storage. Sprinkler irrigation (D) is a water-saving technique but doesn't store water. Hence, C is the best choice.

The pH scale measures acidity/basicity, ranging from 0 (most acidic) to 14 (most basic). Option D (0 to 14) is correct. Option A (0-10) and B (0-7) are incomplete. Option C (-1 to 14) is incorrect as pH cannot be negative in standard contexts.

Catenation refers to the ability of carbon atoms to form bonds with other carbon atoms, creating long chains and complex structures. Option C is correct. Valency (A) is the combining capacity but doesn't specifically explain bonding between carbon atoms. Polymerisation (B) is a process of forming polymers, not the property enabling it. Isomerisation (D) involves rearranging atoms, not bonding capability.

Key point: the function of phloem components. Sieve elements (A) are responsible for translocating food due to their structure allowing sap movement. Phloem parenchyma (B) stores food, phloem fibres (C) provide support, and companion cells (D) assist sieve elements but do not translocate food themselves. So, the correct answer is A as it directly relates to food transport.

The heating effect of current is used in devices like geysers (A), irons (C), and fuses (D) which rely on resistance heating. However, a mixer grinder (B) primarily uses electrical energy for mechanical work via a motor, not heating. Hence, B is correct as it does not utilize the heating effect for its primary function.

Weight on the Moon is calculated using the formula: Weight = mass × gravity. Given the astronaut's mass is 96 kg and lunar gravity is 1/6th of Earth's (10 m/s²), lunar gravity is approximately 1.67 m/s². Calculation: 96 kg × 1.67 m/s² ≈ 160 N. This matches option D, making it correct. Other options either use Earth's gravity (C) or incorrect fractions (A, B).

Mimosa pudica responds to touch through electrical and chemical signals (B) transmitted between plant cells, triggering changes in turgor pressure. This mechanism does not involve growth of new cells (A), specialised tubes for hormones (C), or nerve tissues (D), which plants lack. So, B accurately describes the stimulus transmission method.

Corrosion of iron accelerates in the presence of moisture and electrolytes like salts (D), which facilitate electrochemical reactions. Pure water (A) and dry air (B) inhibit corrosion by limiting reactants. Galvanization (C) protects iron, reducing corrosion. So, D is correct as it provides the optimal conditions for rusting.

The law of conservation of energy states that total energy in a closed system remains constant (D) and can only be converted (B), such as kinetic to potential (C). Option A violates this law, as energy cannot be created in a closed system. Hence, A is the correct answer as it contradicts the principle of energy conservation.

Key point: the nature of images formed by convex mirrors. Convex mirrors always produce virtual and erect images because the reflected rays diverge, and the image cannot be projected on a screen. Option A is correct as it accurately describes this property. Options B and C are incorrect because convex mirrors cannot form real images. Option D is incorrect because the image in a convex mirror is erect, not inverted.

Atomic mass is defined relative to the carbon-12 atom, where 1 atomic mass unit is 1/12th the mass of a carbon-12 atom. Option C states this definition. Option A refers to atomic mass unit but inaccurately mentions a hydrogen molecule. Option B is incorrect because atomic mass is not measured in grams. Option D is incorrect as atomic mass is not measured in kilograms but in atomic mass units.

Pitch is determined by the frequency of sound; higher frequency corresponds to higher pitch. A 500 Hz sound has a higher frequency than a 100 Hz sound, so it has a higher pitch. Option C is correct. Option B is the opposite of the truth. Option A is incorrect because pitch can be compared based on frequency. Option D is incorrect as the two sounds have different frequencies and thus different pitches.

Corrosion is the gradual destruction of metals by chemical reactions with their environment. Rust formation on iron objects (Option D) is a common example of corrosion, specifically iron oxide formation. Options A, B, and C describe unrelated phenomena: glowing of a bulb (electricity), melting of metal (physical change), and boiling of water (phase change), none of which are corrosion.

Genetic variation is crucial for survival as it allows some individuals to possess traits that enable them to survive environmental changes, passing those traits to offspring. Option C identifies this importance. Option A is partially true but does not address survival. Option B describes a result of genetic variation but not its importance. Option D is incorrect because genetic variation reduces uniformity in progeny.

A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture with large particles that settle over time, distinguishing it from colloids and solutions. Option C correctly defines suspension. Option A describes a solution, not a suspension. Option B refers to colloids, which have smaller particles than suspensions. Option D is incorrect as a true solution is homogeneous, unlike a suspension.

To describe distance, only the numerical value (magnitude) is needed, as distance is a scalar quantity. The correct option A states this. Direction is relevant for displacement, a vector quantity, which is why option B is incorrect. Options C and D confuse distance with displacement or misinterpret the basic definition.

The question seems incomplete as provided. However, assuming it relates to calculating a percentage (e.g., 1271 as part of a whole), the correct answer 0.08 (option A) would imply a specific percentage calculation. Without the full question context, the method involves converting the number to a percentage of a total, which may involve division by a specific value. Key point: understanding percentage calculations, where 0.08 represents 8%.

The expression simplifies as follows: 37² - 36² + 35² - 34² + 33² - 32². Using the difference of squares formula (a² - b² = (a+b)(a-b)), each pair simplifies to (37+36)(1) + (35+34)(1) + (33+32)(1) = 73 + 69 + 65 = 207. Option A is correct. Other options likely result from miscalculations or incorrect application of the formula.

Let the cost price be CP and advertised price be AP. The dealer sells at 26% discount, so selling price (SP) = AP - 26% of AP = 74% of AP. Profit is 40% of CP, so SP = CP + 40% of CP = 140% of CP. Equating, 74% of AP = 140% of CP. Given profit is ₹5,698, which is 40% of CP, so CP = 5,698 / 0.4 = ₹14,245. Then, 74% of AP = 140% of 14,245 → AP = (140% of 14,245) / 74% = ₹26,950. Option C is correct. Other options may arise from incorrect percentage calculations or misinterpreting profit/discount relationships.

The question appears incomplete or contains encoding issues. Assuming it asks for a percentage calculation (e.g., a proportion or increase), the correct answer 36.36% (option B) would follow from a specific ratio or fraction converted to a percentage. For example, if the fraction is 4/11, multiplying by 100 gives approximately 36.36%. Key point: converting fractions to percentages accurately. Other options may result from calculation errors or misinterpreting the original ratio.

First, convert the train's speed to m/s: 90 km/hr = 90 * 1000 / 3600 = 25 m/s. The total distance to clear the platform is the sum of the train's length and the platform's length: 793 m + 782 m = 1575 m. Time taken = total distance / speed = 1575 / 25 = 63 seconds. Option C is correct. Other options may stem from incorrect unit conversions or summing distances incorrectly.

To find the number of words in 64 lines, first determine the number of words per line. If 4 lines contain 63 words, then 1 line contains 63/4 = 15.75 words. For 64 lines, total words = 15.75 * 64 = 1008. Option C is correct because it directly multiplies the rate per line by total lines. Options A, B, and D are incorrect due to calculation errors, likely from improper fractions or multiplication mistakes.

Calculate simple interest for each bank: Bank A = 500000 * 3.5/100 * 4 = 70,000; Bank B = 500000 * 7/100 * 4 = 140,000. The difference is 140,000 - 70,000 = 70,000. Option A is correct as it accurately computes the difference in interest. Other options likely miscalculate the interest for one or both banks, leading to incorrect differences.

Let the original number be 10a + b. Given: 10a + b = 7.75(a + b) and 10b + a = 10a + b - 54. Solving these equations, we find a = 9 and b = 3, making the original number 93. Option D is correct as it satisfies both conditions. Other options fail to meet the reversal condition or the multiplication factor, leading to elimination.

Let total work be LCM of 16, 48, 32 = 96 units. Robert's rate = 96/16 = 6 units/day, Chris's = 96/48 = 2 units/day, Jeremy's = 96/32 = 3 units/day. Robert works for 2 days (12 units), Chris works for (x-4) days, and Jeremy works for x days. Total work equation: 12 + 2(x-4) + 3x = 96. Solving gives x = 18.4 days. Option C is correct as it properly accounts for individual work rates and days. Other options likely misapply work rate formulas or miscalculate days.

Combined work rate for A, B, and C is 1/2 + 1/12 + 1/6 = (6 + 1 + 2)/12 = 9/12 = 3/4 per day. For thrice the work (3 units), time = 3 / (3/4) = 4 days. Option C is correct as it accurately calculates combined rates and applies them to thrice the work. Other options incorrectly compute the combined rate or misinterpret 'thrice the work'.

Let the smaller side be x, then the larger side is 1.25x. Area = (x + 1.25x)/2 * 16 = 720. Solving, 2.25x/2 * 16 = 720 => 18x = 720 => x = 40 m. Option C is correct as it properly sets up the equation based on trapezium area formula. Other options likely result from incorrect percentage calculations or formula application.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Profit and Loss, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

In a 45-45-90 triangle, the legs are equal. The height of the building (72.1 m) is one leg, so the horizontal distance from the building to the car is also 72.1 m. Option D is correct as it directly states this distance. Other options are incorrect because they either miscalculate the distance or apply the wrong trigonometric ratio.

Let the path width be x. The area of the path is the difference between the outer and inner rectangles: (34*24) - (34-2x)(24-2x) = 216. Solving gives x = 2 m. The inner lawn dimensions are 30 m by 20 m, so its perimeter is 2*(30+20) = 100 m. Option C is correct as it matches the calculated perimeter. Other options result from incorrect width calculations.

Let Suresh's age be x. Ramesh's age is 2x + 4. The sum is x + 2x + 4 = 52, so 3x = 48, x = 16. Option C is correct as it directly solves for x. Other options are incorrect because they misapply the age relationship or miscalculate the equation.

The ratio of Amit's to Deeksha's investment is the same as their profit ratio: 2,300 : (9,200 - 2,300) = 2,300 : 6,900 = 23:69 = 1:3. Let Amit's investment be x, Deeksha's be 3x. Total investment is x + 3x = 56,100, so x = 14,025. Option B is correct as it matches the calculated investment. Other options result from incorrect ratio setups.

Let the number be x. 20% of x added to 78 equals x: 0.2x + 78 = x. Solving gives 0.8x = 78, so x = 97.5. Then, 60% of x is 0.6 * 97.5 = 58.5. Option A is correct as it matches the calculation. Other options are incorrect due to miscalculations in solving for x or finding the percentage.

Key point: calculating selling price after a percentage loss. The cost price is Rs 750, and the loss is 10%. To find the selling price, calculate 10% of 750: 0.10 * 750 = 75. Subtract this loss from the cost price: 750 - 75 = 675. So, the selling price is Rs 675, which matches option C. The other choices (A, B, D) are incorrect because they do not accurately compute 10% of 750 or subtract it properly.

First, find B as the sum of the first three even natural numbers: 2 + 4 + 6 = 12. C is the third proportional of 6 and B, meaning 6:B = B:C. Substitute B = 12: 6:12 = 12:C. Simplify the ratio to find C: 6/12 = 12/C → C = 24. This matches option B. The other options (A, C, D) result from incorrect calculations of B or misapplying the proportion.

The mode is the value that appears most frequently. In the given data: 35 occurs 5 times, 21 and 25 each occur 3 times, and 32 occurs 2 times. Since 35 has the highest frequency, it is the mode, corresponding to option C. The other choices (A, B, D) are values with lower frequencies.

Calculate total scores: 14 students * 98 = 1372 and 16 students * 54 = 864. Total score = 1372 + 864 = 2236. Average score = 2236 / 30 ≈ 74.533, which rounds to 74.5 (option C). The other options (A, B, D) result from incorrect total score calculations or rounding errors.

Let total distance be D km. Time taken for 1/4 D at 5 km/hr: (D/4)/5 = D/20 hours. Time for 3/4 D at 6 km/hr: (3D/4)/6 = D/8 hours. Total time = D/20 + D/8 = (4D + 5D)/40 = 9D/40 hours. Given total time is 1 hour 24 minutes = 1.4 hours. So, 9D/40 = 1.4 → D = (1.4 * 40)/9 = 6.2... ≈ 8 km (option C). The other options (A, B, D) do not satisfy the time equation.

Let TV cost be Rs 100, so washing machine (WM) is Rs 50. After changes: WM increases by 64% to 50 * 1.64 = 82, TV decreases by 28% to 100 * 0.72 = 72. Original total cost for 6 WM + 2 TV: 6*50 + 2*100 = 500. New total: 6*82 + 2*72 = 492 + 144 = 636. Percentage change: (636 - 500)/500 * 100 = 27.2% increase (option A). The other options (B, C, D) miscalculate the new prices or percentage change.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Direction Sense, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The problem involves deducing the order of boxes based on given conditions. From the bottom: D is above S, and since D isn't third from the bottom, S must be at the bottom. W is immediately above T, with two boxes above W, placing W third from the top. P is above B, and only two boxes are above W, so the order from top is P, B, W, T, E, D, S. So, three boxes (W, T, E) are between E and P, so option B is correct.

Abhishek's rank from the top is 17th, and from the bottom is 49th. To find total students, add the ranks and subtract 1 (since he's counted twice): 17 + 49 - 1 = 65. Option C is correct because it accounts for this overlap. The other choices like 64 or 66 incorrectly adjust the count.

First, identify the highest and lowest numbers from the left set (715, 906, 570, 853, 418). The highest is 906 (third digit 6), and the lowest is 418 (second digit 1). Adding these: 6 + 1 = 7. Option D is correct. Other options result from miscalculating highest/lowest or digit positions.

The series is 8 3 2 6 7 5 4 3 9 1 8 2 5. We need odd numbers immediately followed by another odd. Checking each: 3 (followed by 2, even), 7 (followed by 5, odd), 3 (followed by 9, odd), 9 (followed by 1, odd), 1 (followed by 8, even). Three instances occur (7-5, 3-9, 9-1), so option D is correct.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Alphabet Coding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The code 'ui' represents 'way' in both given examples: 'by the way'→'ots rd ui' and 'oa long way'→'okl ui za'. The common code for 'way' is 'ui'. So, 'oway' would be coded as 'ui' (Option D). Other options correspond to other parts of the sentences (e.g., 'rd' for 'the', 'kl' for 'long'), but 'ui' consistently stands for 'way'.

From the statements: All jams are cobras, and all cobras are mats. This creates a syllogism where all jams are mats (Conclusion II) by transitivity. Also, since all cobras are mats, some mats are cobras (Conclusion I) is true as 'all' implies 'some'. Both conclusions directly follow from the given statements, so option D is correct.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Direction Sense, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

From the clues: Only A sits left of D, so A is at one of the leftmost positions. Four people between A and C means if A is at position 1, C is at 6. G and F have only B between them, so the sequence is G-B-F or F-B-G. G isn't next to C (position 6), so G must be at position 7, making the sequence F-B-G at positions 5-7. This places G at position 7, with 4 people to the right (positions 8 doesn't exist in a 7-person row; correction: in a 7-person row, if G is at position 7, there are 0 people to the right. Re-evaluating: If A is at 1, C at 6, then G-B-F could be at 3-4-5, leaving D at 2 and others. But 'only B sits between G and F' implies G and F are at the ends of the trio. If G is at 5, F at 7, then B is at 6, conflicting with C at 6. So, G must be at 3, B at 4, F at 5. Then, people to the right of G (position 3) are 4,5,6,7 → 4 people (D).

The series progresses with each letter increasing by 4 in the alphabet: L→O (+3, but considering the pattern, it's actually L(12) +4= P, but given OHA, the first letters are L, O, R, U, X, which increase by 4 each time (L=12, O=15, R=18, U=21, X=24, next would be 24+4=28→BC(2) but since 28>26, 28-26=2→B, but the options start with A. Rechecking: L(12), O(15), R(18), U(21), X(24), next is 24+4=28→2 (B). However, the options have 'A' which is 1. This discrepancy suggests a different pattern. Alternatively, the letters might follow a different increment. The numbers increase by 9 each time: 14, 23 (+9), 32 (+9), 41 (+9), 50 (+9), so next is 59. The letters: L, O, R, U, X – the pattern isn't a simple +4. Looking at the letters L(12), O(15), R(18), U(21), X(24), the next would be 24+3=27→AA (but 27 is beyond 26, so 27-26=1→A). So, the next letter cluster would be A followed by T (since the second letters are E(5), H(8), K(11), N(14), Q(17), so adding 3 each time: 5,8,11,14,17, next is 20→T). The third letters are X(24), A(1), D(4), G(7), J(10), next would be 13→M. So the next term is ATM 59, which matches Option C.

Key point: identifying the pattern in letter-cluster pairs. Each pair in the group follows a specific alphabetical relationship. For B (MQ-LO), moving 5 letters back from M gives H, but L is 5 letters back from Q. For C (EI-DG), moving 4 letters back from E gives A, and D is 4 back from G. For D (IM-HK), moving 5 back from I gives D, and H is 5 back from K. However, A (BF-AC) breaks this pattern: moving 1 back from B gives A, but A to C is +2, inconsistent with the others. So, A is the odd one out due to inconsistent letter shifts.

The series is 12, 23, 34, 45, 56, ?. The pattern involves adding 11 to the previous number: 12 +11=23, 23+11=34, and so on. Following this, 56 +11=67. Hence, option C (67) is correct. Other options don't fit the consistent addition of 11.

The pattern involves reverse alphabetical order with a consistent step. A (ZXW) goes Z(-1)X(-1)W, C (GED) is G(-1)E(-1)D, and D (HFE) is H(-1)F(-1)E. However, B (MLJ) breaks the pattern: M to L is -1, but L to J is -2, inconsistent with the others. So, B is the odd one out due to the irregular step between L and J.

From the given conditions: Only two people are to the left of P, so P is 3rd from the left. Three people between P and W means W is 7th (if P is 3rd). One person between W and X places X at 5th or 9th, but since W is 7th, X must be 9th (invalid as there are only 7 people), so X is 5th and W is 7th. R is immediately left of O, and Y isn't next to W. The arrangement deduced is Y, Q, P, R, O, X, W. So, only one person (W) is to the right of Q, so option C is correct.

The series decreases by 7 each time: 58-7=51, 51-7=44, 44-7=37, 37-7=30, so 30-7=23. Hence, option D (23) is correct. Other options don't follow the consistent subtraction of 7.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Equations, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The logic involves rotating the letters. WORD becomes WDRO by moving the last letter to the front, then DROW by repeating the process. Applying this to OATS gives STAO. For the options, GIVE -> GEVI -> EVIG follows the same rotation pattern, making D the correct choice.

The pattern involves shifting letters forward in the alphabet. KIO to LFK: K+1=L, I+1=J, O-1=N (with wrap-around). Similarly, PER to QBN: P+1=Q, E+1=F, R-1=Q (but given as B, indicating a possible shift of -3 for the last letter). OGT to PDP follows: O+1=P, G+1=H (but given as D, suggesting a shift of -3), T-3=P (with wrap-around), making D the correct option.

Original number: 8 5 6 3 5 4 6. Apply the rules: odd digits (5,3,5) +3 = 8,6,8; even digits (8,6,4,6) -2 = 6,4,2,4. New number: 6 8 4 6 8 2 4. The fourth digit from the left is 6, so option C is correct.

From the given conditions, arranging the people: C is next to B, three people between B and A, three between C and D, and G next to F. A possible arrangement is C, B, ..., A, ..., D, ..., F, G. Counting from C's right, A is three positions away, so option C is correct.

The series alternates adding 5 and 7 to the ASCII values of the letters. H(72)+18=Z(90), Z(90)+6=C(99); L(76)+15=G(91), G(71)+18=O(89); P(80)+15=U(85), H(72)+18=Z(90); T(84)+15=O(111), L(76)+18=V(94). Next term: O(111)+15=U(126->X), V(118)+18=Z(136->X), so XPS. Option D matches.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbol Substitution, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Given O - P # T @ G + V, decode each symbol: - = wife, # = father, @ = brother, + = sister. So, O is the wife of P, who is the father of T. T is the brother of G, who is the sister of V. So, O is the mother of T and G, making O the mother of V (since G is V's sister). Option A (Mother) is correct. Other options misrepresent the familial relationships established by the symbols.

Analyze the pattern in (10, 150, 5) and (8, 96, 4). The middle number is the product of the first and third numbers: 10 × 5 = 50, but 10 × 15 = 150, indicating a multiplier of 3 (10 × 5 × 3 = 150). Similarly, 8 × 4 × 3 = 96. Applying this to options: A) 12 × 6 × 4 = 288 (matches), B) 9 × 6 × 3 = 162 (matches), C) 5 × 3 × 3.6 = 54 (doesn't fit), D) 7 × 3 × 4.66 = 98 (doesn't fit). Option B fits the pattern.

Identify odd numbers preceded by an odd and followed by an even. Series: 3 9 7 8 9 8 4 3 1 3 4 3 3 1 7 2 2 9 7 8 3 1 6 2 4 3 3. Check each odd: 9 (preceded by 3-odd, followed by 7-odd: no), 7 (preceded by 9-odd, followed by 8-even: yes), 9 (preceded by 8-even: no), 3 (preceded by 4-even: no), 1 (preceded by 3-odd, followed by 3-odd: no), 3 (preceded by 1-odd, followed by 4-even: yes), 3 (preceded by 4-even: no), 3 (preceded by 3-odd, followed by 1-odd: no), 1 (preceded by 3-odd, followed by 7-odd: no), 7 (preceded by 1-odd, followed by 2-even: yes), 9 (preceded by 2-even: no), 7 (preceded by 9-odd, followed by 8-even: yes), 3 (preceded by 8-even: no), 1 (preceded by 3-odd, followed by 6-even: yes), 3 (preceded by 4-even: no), 3 (preceded by 3-odd, followed by end: no). Total 5 instances. Option D (5) is correct.

Statements: All eggs are artists. Some mangoes are artists. Conclusions: I) Some eggs are mangoes. II) Some artists are eggs. Syllogism rules: All eggs are artists makes 'eggs' a subset of 'artists'. Some mangoes are artists means an overlap between mangoes and artists, but no direct link to eggs. Conclusion I assumes eggs and mangoes overlap, which isn't necessarily true (eggs could be a separate subset). Conclusion II is valid because if all eggs are artists, then some artists must be eggs. Only conclusion II follows. Option B is correct.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbol Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Key point: identifying recent sports records. Toshikazu Yamanishi's 2025 world record in the 20km race walk (Option A) is correct, as this event is a standard Olympic discipline. The other choices (B, C, D) refer to non-standard or discontinued distances, making them implausible. For exam preparation, focus on recent athletics events and record holders.

This checks the 2024 Corruption Perceptions Index. The correct score for the US is 65 (Option C). Transparency International's annual report is a key source for such data. Options A (70) and B (67) might reflect previous years or other countries, while D (62) is too low for the US context. For revision, review recent index scores for major countries.

Focus on the 2025 Asian Wrestling Championships. Manisha Bhanwala's gold in the 62 kg category (Option B) is accurate, as this weight class is recognized in international wrestling. Options A (59 kg) and C (53 kg) are lighter categories, while D (76 kg) is a higher, less common division. Familiarize yourself with Indian wrestlers' achievements in 2025.

The question addresses banking policy changes in 2025. Canara Bank (Option D) removed the minimum balance requirement, a notable customer-friendly move. Options A (SBI), B (PNB), and C (Bank of Baroda) are major banks but did not implement this specific change in June 2025. Track recent banking sector reforms for such questions.

The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is a prestigious honor. Manu Bhaker (Option A), an accomplished shooter, received it in 2025. Other options (B, C, D) are shooters but not the 2025 awardee. Study recent national award recipients, especially in sports, to answer such questions correctly.

Ahilyabai Holkar's birthplace, Chondi (Option A), was honoured in May 2025. The Maharashtra Cabinet's meeting highlights the historical significance. Options B (Nashik), C (Paithan), and D (Maheshwar) are associated with her life but not her birth. Remember key events and commemorations related to historical figures for such questions.

The Tiger Triumph exercise is a bilateral military engagement. The US is a key strategic partner for India, so option B is correct. The UK, Australia, and France, while important allies, were not participants in this specific 2025 exercise, eliminating options A, C, and D.

INS Tarini is a sailboat used for the Navika Sagar Parikrama missions, which focus on women's maritime achievements. Option A is correct as INS Tarini was specifically used in the second mission. Other vessels like INS Bhagmati or INS Sarojini are not associated with this circumnavigation effort, ruling out options B, C, and D.

Gaganyaan is ISRO's human spaceflight programme. Declaring 2025 as Gaganyaan Year highlights this focus, so option A is correct. Moon and Mars missions are separate initiatives, and 'Solar Year' is unrelated, eliminating options B, C, and D.

Option D is marked correct. For this Polity question on Constitutional Amendments, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

Euthalia malaccana is a species of butterfly. The discovery in Arunachal Pradesh aligns with butterfly species identification, so option C is correct. Locusts, dragonflies, and grasshoppers belong to different insect orders, ruling out options A, B, and D.

Maharashtra's Bamboo Industry Policy, 2025 focuses on sustainable income and production. Option A is correct as Maharashtra implemented this policy. Tripura, West Bengal, and Tamil Nadu, while having bamboo resources, did not enact this specific policy in 2025, eliminating options B, C, and D.

The answer depends on the Deputy Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh as of June 2025. Key point: recent political appointments in Indian states. Pawan Kalyan (Option A) is the correct answer, as he transitioned from a prominent actor to a politician and held this position. Balakrishna (B) is also an actor-politician but not in this role. Prakash Raj (C) and Chiranjeevi (D) are actors with political affiliations but not associated with this specific post, making them other choices.

This question focuses on identifying the host city of VivaTech 2025. Key point: knowing major European tech events. Paris (C) is correct, as VivaTech is annually held there, being a significant European tech conference. Lisbon (A), Berlin (B), and Barcelona (D) host other notable events but not VivaTech, eliminating them as options.

Option A is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Union Budget, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This question assesses awareness of recent banking agreements. Punjab National Bank (A) signed an MoU with ITBP in February 2025 for financial benefits. Other banks listed (B, C, D) are prominent but were not involved in this specific partnership, making them incorrect choices. Key point: tracking recent collaborations between banks and defense/security forces.

Option D is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Infrastructure Development, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This question evaluates knowledge of India's national parks, specifically the 107th addition in April 2025. Similipal (B) is correct, as it was recently designated, expanding India's protected areas. Gorumara (A), Bhitarkanika (C), and Dudhwa (D) are existing national parks but were not the latest inclusions, making them other choices. Focus on recent environmental conservation efforts.

The answer depends on the number of DRDO Industry Academia Centres of Excellence (DIA-CoEs) established in 2025. Key point: recent developments in India's scientific infrastructure. 15 (Option B) as per the March 2025 notification is the answer. Options A (10) and D (5) are lower than the actual number, likely testing the candidate's awareness of the scale of such initiatives. Option C (20) overestimates the figure, which might be a common mistake if one confuses it with other similar schemes. Remembering the exact number is crucial here, as the question directly assesses knowledge of current science and technology policies in India.

Option A is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Awards and Honours, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

Analyze the letter-clusters: QA-KG, UE-PK, BL-WR, HR-CX. Look for patterns in the positions of letters in the alphabet. QA: Q(17) to A(1), difference of -16. KG: K(11) to G(7), difference of -4. UE: U(21) to E(5), difference of -16. PK: P(16) to K(11), difference of -5. BL: B(2) to L(12), difference of +10. WR: W(23) to R(18), difference of -5. HR: H(8) to R(18), difference of +10. CX: C(3) to X(24), difference of +21. The odd one out is QA-KG, as the differences in the other pairs have a consistent pattern (UE-PK: -16 and -5; BL-WR: +10 and -5; HR-CX: +10 and +21), whereas QA-KG has -16 and -4, which doesn't fit the established trend of combining a large negative difference with a smaller negative or positive difference. So, option A is correct.

In electrolytic refining, the impure metal serves as the anode, where it oxidizes and dissolves into the electrolyte. The pure metal deposits onto the cathode. Option B (anode) is correct. The cathode (A) is where reduction occurs, the electrolyte (C) conducts ions, and the separator (D) prevents mixing of anolyte and catholyte in some cells, but is not the metal itself.