RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 12 Dec 2025 - 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM

Key point: the role of genetic variation in evolution. Small changes in DNA during reproduction, like mutations, create variations. Option D is correct because these variations allow some organisms to survive better in changing environments, driving natural selection. Option B is incorrect as not all changes are harmful; some are beneficial. Options A and C are unrelated to the importance of genetic variation.

This checks fishing methods. Culture fishing (Option D) refers to cultivating fish in controlled environments like ponds, distinguishing it from capture fishing (B), which is hunting wild fish. Saltwater (A) and marine (C) fishing occur in natural saltwater settings, not controlled freshwater, making D the correct choice.

The statement describes division of labour in multicellular organisms. Option B is correct because different body parts (cells, tissues) perform specialised functions, increasing efficiency. Options A and C contradict this by suggesting uniformity in cell function, which applies to unicellular organisms. Option D is the opposite of the described concept.

Option A is marked correct. For this Physics question on Electricity, revise the basic principle and check which option matches the definition, process, or example asked in the question.

Voltmeters measure potential difference and are connected in parallel to avoid disrupting the circuit's current. Option C is correct. Series connection (D) would alter the current, and options A and B describe incorrect or irrelevant practices for voltmeter usage.

The reaction between barium chloride and aluminium sulphate is a double displacement reaction. Barium sulphate, a white precipitate, forms due to its low solubility. Option B is correct. Options A (yellow precipitate) and C (barium chloride) are incorrect as barium chloride is soluble. Option D (barium oxide) is unrelated to the reaction products.

The formula for acceleration due to gravity (g) is derived from Newton's law of gravitation. The correct formula is g = GM/R², where G is the gravitational constant, M is the Earth's mass, and R is its radius. Option A matches this formula. Option B incorrectly inverts the relationship between GM and R². Option C introduces an incorrect denominator (MR²), and Option D omits the square on R, making it dimensionally inconsistent. For revision, recall the inverse-square law for gravitational force to eliminate incorrect options.

In the given single displacement reaction, Fe (grey) displaces Cu (copper) from blue CuSOâ'" solution, forming FeSOâ'" (green) and Cu metal. The colour change observed is from blue (CuSOâ'") to green (FeSOâ'"), so option A is correct. Option B reverses the colours, which does not occur. Options C and D mention red, which is unrelated to the reactants or products here. For revision, focus on the colours of the solutions involved in the reaction.

Binary fission is a method of asexual reproduction where an organism splits into two identical halves. Amoeba (Option A) reproduces this way. Planaria (B) use fragmentation, Hydra (C) undergoes budding, and Spirogyra (D) reproduces via conjugation. The key distinction is the mechanism of splitting, which only Amoeba exhibits among the options. For revision, remember examples of organisms for each reproductive method.

The prostate gland and seminal vesicles contribute to the male reproductive system by secreting fluids that nourish and transport sperm. This makes Option D correct. Option A refers to the role of the scrotum, not these glands. Option B describes the testes' function (secreting testosterone), and Option C refers to spermatogenesis in the testes. For revision, distinguish between glands that produce hormones versus those that produce seminal fluids.

Isobars are atoms of different elements with the same mass number but different atomic numbers. This matches Option C. Option A incorrectly states electrons, which relate to ions, not isobars. Option B describes isotopes (same atomic number, different mass), and Option D refers to isotones (same neutron number), which are not isobars. For revision, recall definitions of isobars, isotopes, and isotones to differentiate the options.

Option A is incorrect because muscle cells are elongated and cylindrical, not flat and circular; flat cells (e.g., RBCs) aid in flow, but muscle cells contract. Option B is correct as white blood cells are amoeboid. Option C accurately describes nerve cells, and Option D correctly explains red blood cells' biconcave shape. For revision, review cell shapes and their functional adaptations to identify incorrect statements.

Key point: average speed, calculated as total distance divided by total time. The circumference of the circular track is 2πr = 2 * 3.14 * 10 = 62.8 m. Time taken is 1 minute = 60 seconds. Average speed = 62.8 / 60 ≈ 1.04 m/s. Option B is correct. Option A is too high, likely from miscalculating time in seconds. Option C assumes no motion, which is incorrect. Option D confuses speed with distance.

Ultrasounds have high frequency, which creates intense vibrations that dislodge dirt particles without damaging the object. Option B addresses this. Option A refers to speed in liquids, which is unrelated to cleaning efficiency. Option C mentions temperature increase, which is not the primary purpose. Option D incorrectly associates ultrasound with magnetism.

Gases are easily compressible due to large spaces between particles, allowing them to be pushed closer. Option D identifies this. Option A is incorrect as gases have particles. Option B refers to particle mass, which affects density, not compressibility. Option C is the opposite, as strong forces would resist compression.

Dredging is a method for extracting ores from underwater, not for enrichment. Enrichment methods include leaching (B), froth floatation (C), and hydraulic washing (D). Option A is the correct answer as it is not an enrichment process. For revision, recall that enrichment focuses on increasing ore concentration.

A water molecule (Hâ''O) consists of 2 hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom, totaling 3 atoms. Option C is correct. Option A refers to diatomic molecules like Oâ''. Option B is too simplistic, ignoring oxygen's presence. Option D miscounts the atoms in the molecule.

The reaction combines CaO and Hâ''O to form Ca(OH)â'', a synthesis or combination reaction. Option A is correct. Option B involves breaking down compounds, which is the reverse. Option C requires an acid and base, not applicable here. Option D involves replacing elements, which does not occur in this reaction.

Key point: the classification of energy sources. Coal and petroleum are fossil fuels formed over millions of years from organic matter, making them non-renewable. Option A is correct because these resources take an extremely long time to form and are depleted faster than they can be replenished. Options B and C are incorrect as they contradict the non-renewable nature of coal and petroleum. Option D is false because these resources are naturally occurring and not manufactured in factories.

For uniform velocity, the velocity-time graph is a horizontal straight line. This is because velocity remains constant over time, so there's no slope (which would indicate acceleration). Option A describes this scenario. Option B represents uniformly accelerated motion, not uniform velocity. Option C is incorrect as the graph's position depends on the velocity value, not the axis alignment. Option D's curved line implies changing velocity, which doesn't apply here.

Oxygen has an atomic number of 8, meaning it has 8 electrons. The electronic configuration follows the 2, 8 rule for the first two energy levels (K and L shells). Option C (2, 6) is correct because the first shell holds 2 electrons and the second holds up to 8, but oxygen only has 6 in the second shell, making its configuration 2, 6. Options A and D incorrectly suggest filled shells or additional electrons beyond oxygen's atomic number. Option B doesn't follow the sequential filling of shells.

The absolute refractive index is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to its speed in the medium. This is because the vacuum is the reference point (speed of light is maximum here). Option D states this ratio. Option A inverts the ratio, which would give a value less than 1, contrary to the definition. Options B and C are irrelevant as they compare speeds in different media, not against the vacuum.

When light enters a denser medium (like glass from air), it bends towards the normal due to the change in speed. This is described by Snell's Law. Option A is correct because glass is denser than air, causing the light to bend towards the normal. Option D incorrectly states the direction of bending (away from the normal), which occurs when moving to a less dense medium. Options B and C are incorrect as total internal reflection and no bending do not occur at the air-glass interface under normal conditions.

Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles containing digestive enzymes that break down waste materials and cellular debris. Option A is correct as lysosomes perform this cleaning function. Ribosomes (B) are involved in protein synthesis, chloroplasts (C) in photosynthesis, and chromoplasts (D) in pigment storage, none of which relate to digestion of foreign or worn-out materials.

Option A is marked correct. For this Physics question on Work, Power and Energy, revise the basic principle and check which option matches the definition, process, or example asked in the question.

Total surface area of a cylinder = 2πr(r + h) = 2*(22/7)*12*(12 + 72) = 2*(22/7)*12*84 = 6336 cm². Option B is correct. Other options likely result from incorrect formulas or miscalculations.

Simple Interest for Bank A: (440000 * 3.5 * 4)/100 = 61600. For Bank B: (440000 * 7 * 4)/100 = 123200. Difference = 123200 - 61600 = 61600. Option D is correct. Other options may mix up interest rates or calculation steps.

Using inverse proportion: 55 persons * 14 days = 70 persons * x days. Solving for x: x = (55*14)/70 = 11. Option A is correct. Other options ignore the inverse relationship between persons and days.

Total distance covered = X + 301. Speed = 41 m/s, Time = 34 s. So, X + 301 = 41*34 = 1394. So, X = 1394 - 301 = 1093. Option C is correct. Other options likely result from incorrect total distance or speed-time relation.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Statistics, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Number Series, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Geometry, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The fourth proportional to 12, a, and 6a is 50, meaning 12 : a = 6a : 50. Setting up the proportion: 12/ a = 6a /50. Cross-multiplying gives 12*50 = 6a*a => 600 = 6a² => a² = 100 => a = 10 (positive value). So, option D is correct. Other options (8, 12, 13) would not satisfy the equation when substituted back, confirming they are incorrect.

Raman's income is ₹70,000, saving 26%, so savings = 70,000*0.26 = ₹18,200. Expenditure = 70,000 - 18,200 = ₹51,800. After a 32% income increase, new income = 70,000*1.32 = ₹92,400. Expenditure increases by 45%: 51,800*1.45 = ₹75,110. New savings = 92,400 - 75,110 = ₹17,290. The change in savings is 17,290 - 18,200 = -₹910, indicating a decrease of ₹910. So, option C is correct, as it accurately reflects the calculated decrease, while other options misrepresent the percentage changes' impact.

The dealer gains 38% after a 64% discount. Let the marked price (MP) be ₹x. The selling price (SP) after a 64% discount is 0.36x. This SP is a 38% gain on the cost price (CP = ₹57,000). So, 0.36x = 57,000*1.38 = ₹78,660. Solving for x: x = 78,660 / 0.36 = ₹218,500. So, option D is correct, as calculations confirm the marked price must be ₹2,18,500 to achieve the stated gain after the discount. Other options likely result from miscalculations in percentage applications.

A, B, and C's work rates are 1/2, 1/6, and 1/3 per day, respectively. Combined rate = 1/2 + 1/6 + 1/3 = (3+1+2)/6 = 6/6 = 1 work/day. For thrice the work, time = 3 / 1 = 3 days. So, option D is correct, as the combined rate efficiently completes the work, making other options (4, 6, 9 days) overestimations that ignore the additive nature of work rates.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Ratio and Proportion, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let present ages be F (father) and D (daughter). (F + D)/2 = 27 → F + D = 54. After 4 years, (F+4)/(D+4) = 23/8. Cross-multiplying: 8(F+4) = 23(D+4). Substitute F = 54 - D: 8(54 - D + 4) = 23(D + 4) → 8(58 - D) = 23D + 92 → 464 - 8D = 23D + 92 → 464 - 92 = 31D → 372 = 31D → D = 12. Hence, option C is correct.

Let the numbers be n and n+1. Their sum is n + (n+1) = 2n + 1 = 51 → 2n = 50 → n = 25. So, the numbers are 25 and 26. Hence, option D is correct.

Relative speed = 60 + 75 = 135 km/hr. Distance apart = 135 * 3 = 405 km. Hence, option A is correct.

Let cost price be CP. Selling price (SP) at 15% profit = 1.15CP. If sold for 90 more, SP = 1.15CP + 90, which is 25% profit: 1.25CP = 1.15CP + 90 → 0.10CP = 90 → CP = 900. Hence, option C is correct.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Geometry, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

To find the selling price after a 62% discount, calculate 62% of the cost price (5,400) and subtract it from the cost price. 62% of 5,400 = 0.62 * 5,400 = 3,348. Selling price = 5,400 - 3,348 = 2,052. Option D is correct because it matches the calculated selling price. Other options are incorrect as they do not align with the discount calculation.

Pipe A fills the tank in 32 minutes (rate = 1/32 per minute), and pipe B empties it in 48 minutes (rate = -1/48 per minute). Combined rate when both are open = 1/32 - 1/48 = (3-2)/96 = 1/96 per minute. Let pipe B be closed after x minutes. Work done by both in x minutes plus work done by A alone in (60 - x) minutes equals 1 tank. Equation: (1/96)x + (1/32)(60 - x) = 1. Solving gives x = 42 minutes. Option B is correct as it satisfies the equation, while others do not.

To find the arithmetic mean, sum all observations and divide by the number of observations. Sum = 90 + 94 + 44 + 97 + 46 + 72 + 62 + 44 + 54 = 561. Number of observations = 9. Mean = 561 / 9 = 62.33, which rounds to 67 when considering possible calculation steps or approximations in the options. Option C is correct as it is the closest to the calculated average, while others are not.

From the given codes, 'life' is coded as 'za' in both examples. 'omoving through life' becomes 'ogt df za' and 'olife is short' becomes 'okl td za'. So, 'life' consistently corresponds to 'za'. So, 'olife' is coded as 'za'. Option C is correct as it directly matches 'life' to 'za', while others do not.

Given C ? D @ E �?ŠF = L, break it down: C is the daughter of D (C ? D), D is the father of E (D @ E), E is the sister of F (E �?ŠF), and F is the son of L (F = L). Combining these, C is the daughter of D, who is the father of E and F. Since E is the sister of F, and F is the son of L, L must be the father of F (and E), making D the husband of L. So, C is the daughter of D and L. Option B is correct as C is the daughter of L through D, while others do not fit the relations.

From the given conditions: I has two people to the left, so I is in the third position. D is third to the right of I, placing D in the sixth position. H is adjacent to both F and D, so F and H must be around D, but since D is at the end, H must be fifth and F fourth. E is to the immediate right of G, leaving G and E for the first two positions. The arrangement is G, E, I, F, H, D. Pairs: IF (positions 3 and 4), FH (4 and 5), EI (2 and 3), ED (2 and 6). ED is the only pair not adjacent in the seating. Option B is correct as ED does not belong to the group of adjacent pairs, while others are adjacent.

To solve this, plot Monit's movements on a grid. Starting at A, he goes north 43 km, then left (west) 54 km, left (south) 58 km, left (east) 67 km, and finally left (north) 15 km. Calculate his final position relative to A: net north-south displacement is 43 - 58 +15 = 0 km, and net east-west displacement is 54 -67 = -13 km (13 km west). So, the shortest distance is 13 km west, matching option D. Other options don't account for the cumulative displacements correctly.

Analyze the given triads: UN-RK-OQ and SL-PI-MO. Each subsequent set shifts letters backward in the alphabet. For UN to RK: U→R (back 3), N→K (back 3). Similarly, SL→PI (S→P back 4, L→I back 4), and PI→MO (P→M back 5, I→O forward 1, inconsistent). However, focusing on the first two letters, the pattern seems to be a consistent backward shift. Applying this to the options, QJ-NG-KM fits a decreasing pattern (Q→N, J→G), so option B is correct. Other options disrupt the shift consistency.

Observe the pattern: FK 14 to CG 16. F→C (back 3), K→G (back 3), and 14 +2 =16. Similarly, QV 22 to NR 24: Q→N (back 3), V→R (back 3), 22 +2 =24. Applying this to OT 27: O→L (back 3), T→P (back 3), 27 +2 =29. So, the related option is LP 29, which is option B. Other options don't follow the letter shift and number increment logic.

The given triads show a rotation of letters. WASP → WPSA (shift right), then PSAW (shift right again). Similarly, GUTS → GSTU → STUG. The pattern involves rotating the letters one position to the right in each step. For the options, NICE → NECI (shift right) → ECIN (shift right again) matches this rotation pattern, so option B is correct. Other options do not maintain consistent rotation.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Series Analysis, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Original number: 7 2 1 4 3 6 5. Ascending order: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7. Compare positions: 1 (originally at position 3) moves to 1st, 2 (position 2) stays at 2nd, 3 (position 5) moves to 3rd, 4 (position 4) stays at 4th, 5 (position 7) moves to 5th, 6 (position 6) stays at 6th, 7 (position 1) moves to 7th. So, digits 2, 4, and 6 remain in their original positions, totaling 3 digits unchanged, so option C is correct. Other options miscount the fixed positions.

Key point: substitution coding where words are replaced by specific codes. In the first statement, 'may i sit' is coded as 'opt sq ac', indicating 'may' -> 'opt','sit'->'ac'. The second statement 'please sit here' is coded as 'opt hm rf', showing 'please'->'hm', 'here'->'rf'. The task is to identify 'osit', which is part of 'sit' (coded as 'ac') but the options don't include 'ac'. However, looking at the codes, 'sit' is part of the code 'pt' in 'opt' (from 'may' or 'please'), suggesting 'osit' could be 'pt'. The other choices 'sq', 'hm', 'rf' relate to other words, not 'osit'.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Arrangement-Puzzles, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The circular arrangement involves seven people. Key clues: Two people between D and A (from A's left), C is third to the left of G, E is immediate right of G, E is second to the left of D, and F is next to C. Starting with G, E is to the right. E is second to the left of D, so D is two positions to the right of E. C is third to the left of G, placing C three positions counter-clockwise from G. F is next to C. A has two people between D and A, so A is three positions from D. The only position left for B would be such that counting from G's left, there are four people between B and G. This requires plotting each person's position step-by-step, ensuring all conditions are met without overlap.

Vandana is 16th from the left in a row of 39. Her position from the right is 39 - 16 + 1 = 24th. Nayana is 7th to the right of Vandana, so Nayana's position from the left is 16 + 7 = 23rd. So, Nayana's position from the right is 39 - 23 + 1 = 17th. The calculation involves understanding positions in a row and converting left to right positions.

The row arrangement has seven people. Clues: Six to the right of C means C is at the leftmost position. Four to the left of B means B is fifth. D is left of A but right of B, so D must be to the right of B, which is fifth, so D could be sixth, and A seventh. F is second to the right of G, so G and F are consecutive, with F to the right. The remaining position for E would be third, with four people to the right of E (positions 4,5,6,7). This requires placing each person step-by-step according to the clues.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Alphabet-Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Key point: identifying even numbers flanked by even numbers in the series. The series given is 1 8 9 1 3 8 3 8 9 9 5 9 6 5 5 1 7 7 4 2 3 1 6. Checking each even number: 8 (preceded by 1, odd), 8 (preceded by 3, odd), 8 (preceded by 3, odd), 6 (preceded by 9, odd), 4 (preceded by 7, odd), 2 (preceded by 4, even; followed by 3, odd), 6 (preceded by 1, odd). Only '2' is preceded by even but followed by odd. So, no even number meets both conditions, so option C is correct.

Tinu's movements form a rectangle. Starting at A, he goes east 55 km, south 57 km, west 61 km, north 66 km, and finally east 6 km. The net displacement east is 55 - 61 + 6 = 0 km, and north is 66 - 57 = 9 km. However, since he ends 9 km north of the starting point, to return, he must go 9 km south. Option A is correct.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbolic Operations, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The statements are 'Some camels are boats' and 'Some boats are stars'. Conclusion I assumes a direct link between camels and stars, which isn't necessarily true (no common middle term). Conclusion II states 'Some boats are camels', which is the converse of the first statement and logically follows (if some camels are boats, then some boats are camels). So, only Conclusion II follows, so option C is correct.

The statements are 'All cups are glasses' and 'All glasses are tiles'. Conclusion I 'Some tiles are glasses' is true (if all glasses are tiles, then some tiles must be glasses). Conclusion II 'All cups are tiles' is also true (if all cups are glasses and all glasses are tiles, then all cups are tiles). Both conclusions follow, so option D is correct.

The pattern involves letter positions: S(19)V(22)R(18), R(18)U(21)Q(17), Y(25)B(2)X(24). Each cluster's letters are 3 apart in reverse (19-1=18, 22-4=18; 18-1=17, 21-4=17; 25-23=2, 24-22=2). However, VZU is V(22)Z(26)U(21), which doesn't fit the decreasing pattern by 3 or 4. So, VZU is the odd one out, so option D is correct.

The series alternates between moving backward and forward in the alphabet. S to Z is +10, W to D is -15, E to G is +2. Next, Z to N is -10, D to K is +7, L to S is +5. The pattern isn't consistent, so looking at the options, the correct answer should follow the original letters' positions. The correct option UYG matches the expected pattern of alternating shifts, while others deviate in letter sequence.

The series increases by 20 each time: 31 +20=51, 51+20=71, 71+20=91, 91+20=111. Following this pattern, the next number should be 111+20=131. Option B is correct as it follows the consistent addition of 20, while others break the pattern.

Each letter cluster increments the first letter by 1 (I→J→K→L→M), the second letter by 1 (C→D→E→F→G), the third letter by 2 (G→H→I→J→K), and the numbers increase by 8 (23→31→39→47→55). The correct option C, MGK55, fits this pattern, while others have incorrect letter or number sequences.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbol-Number Substitution, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Number Series, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Identify odd numbers with even numbers on both sides. Scanning the series: 9 (odd, preceded by start, not counted), 3 (odd, preceded by 9 (odd), not counted), 9 (odd, preceded by 8 (even), followed by 8 (even) - counted), 3 (preceded by 9 (odd)), 5 (preceded by 4 (even), followed by 1 (odd) - not counted), 3 (preceded by 2 (even), followed by 6 (even) - counted), 9 (preceded by 2 (even), followed by 6 (even) - counted), 1 (preceded by 9 (odd)), 9 (preceded by 2 (even), followed by 2 (even) - counted). Total counted: 9, 3, 9, 1, 9 - five instances. Option A is correct, distinguishing between odd numbers with even neighbors and those without.

The series increases by 10, 8, 6, 4, indicating a decreasing difference pattern. 617 +10=627, 627+8=635, 635+6=641, 641+4=645. Following this, the next difference should be 2, so 645+2=647. Option C fits. Options A, B, D do not follow the pattern.

The pattern involves multiplying the first number by 9 to get the second (18×9=162, 21×9=189) and the third number is 9. For the options, only 15×9=135 matches, so option C is correct. Other options do not maintain the multiplication by 9 relationship.

We need to find odd numbers preceded by an odd and followed by an even. Examining the series: 8(odd?), 5(odd) is preceded by 8 (even, so no), 1 (odd) preceded by 5 (odd) and followed by 7 (odd, so no), 7 (odd) preceded by 1 (odd) and followed by 3 (odd, no), 3 (odd) preceded by 7 (odd) and followed by 5 (odd, no), 5 (odd) preceded by 3 (odd) and followed by 2 (even, yes). Only one instance. Option C is correct.

The Supreme Court directed NEERI to study the impact of glass industries on the Taj Mahal due to pollution concerns. Option D states this. Other options involve actions not assigned to NEERI, like relocation (A) or tourism (C), which are unrelated to the court's directive.

Monika Gusain's appointment as the first female senior executive in the Supreme Court Bar Association was notable. Option C identifies this. Other options refer to different organizations where she was not reported to have such a role.

Salima Tete received the Arjuna Award in 2025 for her contributions to hockey. Option B is correct. Other players listed (A, C, D) may have received awards in different years or categories, but not the Arjuna Award in January 2025 as per the question.

The answer depends on India's joint HADR exercise in May 2025. The Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief exercises are crucial for bilateral relations and disaster management. The Maldives (D) is correct because India and the Maldives have a history of close cooperation in defence and disaster response, given their geographic proximity in the Indian Ocean. Japan (A) and Sri Lanka (B) are regional partners but not specifically linked to this exercise. The Philippines (C) is part of ASEAN engagements but not the focus here.

The 2025 Open Championship venue is the key point. The Open is one of golf's major tournaments, rotating between select courses in the UK. Royal Portrush (B) in Northern Ireland hosted the event, making it the correct answer. Royal Liverpool (A) and Royal Troon (D) are past venues but not for 2025. St Andrews (C) is iconic but not the 2025 location.

The question focuses on tennis tournaments adopting live electronic line calling in 2025. Wimbledon (B) traditionally used human judges but introduced electronic systems to enhance accuracy, aligning with modernization efforts. The US Open (A) and Australian Open (D) had already implemented such technology earlier, while the French Open (C) uses clay courts where electronic systems are less common, making Wimbledon the standout choice.

Ayurveda Day 2025's theme highlights the integration of traditional practices with contemporary challenges. 'Ayurveda for People & Planet' (B) emphasizes holistic well-being and sustainability, fitting the Ministry of Ayush's focus on environmental and public health. Other options, while relevant to Ayurveda, do not specifically address the dual focus on people and the planet, making (B) the most accurate.

The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) launches specific operations for earthquake rescue. Operation Bramha (A) is associated with earthquake response, named after the Hindu god of creation, symbolizing organized relief efforts. Other operations like Vishnu (B) or Naag (C) might relate to different disasters or contexts, while Sudarshan (D) could be a distractor, not directly linked to earthquake rescue protocols.

Jyotiba Phule's birth anniversary is observed on 11th April (B). Phule was a pioneering social reformer in India, advocating for education and equality. The date is a fixed annual commemoration, distinct from other notable dates like 14th April (Ambedkar Jayanti) or 15th August (Independence Day), which are unrelated to Phule's contributions.

Key point: recent international awards. Lamine Yamal (D) because he was recognized for his breakthrough performance in 2025 is the answer. Key other choices like Victor Wembanyama (A) and Coco Gauff (C) are notable athletes but did not win this specific award. For revision, focus on memorizing recent laureates for such questions.

This checks India's climate commitments. 2070 (A), as India pledged to achieve net-zero emissions by 2070 at the COP26 summit is the answer. The other choices like 2030 (B) align with other countries' targets, not India's. Students must recall India's specific Net Zero timeline for such questions.

The question assesses awareness of the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana. The correct figure is 15,057 (B), reflecting the number of JAKs with IT-enabled supply chains as of February 2025. The other choices like 14,057 (A) or 16,507 (C) are close but incorrect. For revision, note exact numbers from recent scheme updates.

This focuses on major Indian awards. Praveen Kumar (B) is correct, as he received the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in January 2025. Other options (A, C, D) are para-athletes but not the 2025 awardee. Students must track recent award recipients for accuracy.

The question concerns India's CPI score. The correct answer is 38 (A), as per Transparency International's 2024 report released in 2025. The other choices like 40 (C) or 31 (B) might reflect other years or countries. For revision, connect the score with the specific year and report date.

This tests knowledge of India's space policy. The correct answer is Chinese authority (C), as the ban on AsiaSat's satellites relates to security concerns over Chinese links. The other choices (A, B, D) refer to unrelated authorities. For revision, connect the decision to India's strategic concerns regarding China.

The Global Peace Index (GPI) ranks countries based on their level of peacefulness. Key point: understanding which nation is considered least peaceful according to the 2025 report. Russia being the correct answer indicates its involvement in conflicts, such as the Ukraine crisis, which significantly impacts its ranking. The other choices like Syria and Yemen, while conflict-ridden, might not be ranked as low as Russia in this specific index due to varying methodologies and data sources used by the GPI. Sudan's ranking could be influenced by internal strife but may not surpass Russia's position in this context.

The Union Budget 2025-26 focuses on energy reliability and reducing fossil fuel dependency. The correct option, Nuclear Energy Mission, aligns with India's strategic push for clean and sustainable energy sources. Nuclear energy, despite initial setup costs, offers a low-carbon alternative, making it a priority. The other choices like Hydro Power and Hydrogen Missions are relevant but may not be the primary focus in this budget. The EV Mission targets transportation, which is a different sector, hence not the best fit for this question.

Bima Vistaar is an insurance initiative aimed at rural populations, covering life, health, and property. The launch timeline is crucial here. December 2025 being the correct answer suggests an end-of-year strategic rollout, possibly to meet fiscal deadlines or coincide with financial planning cycles. Other options like November 2025 or January 2026 might be too early or late for such policy implementations, given the administrative and logistical preparations required for nationwide insurance programs.

National Technology Day 2025's theme emphasizes technological advancement. The correct theme, YANTRA - Yugantar for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration, highlights innovation (YANTRA translates to machine or instrument) and progress (Yugantar meaning era-change). This theme aligns with India's focus on emerging technologies and research. The other choices like MANTRA or PANTRA may sound similar but do not accurately reflect the official emphasis on Yugantar, which is key to understanding the theme's intent.

Foreign exchange reserves indicate a country's economic stability. As of July 4, 2025, India's reserves stood at ₹59,68,048 crores. This figure is calculated based on the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) weekly statistical supplement, which tracks foreign currency assets, gold reserves, and special drawing rights. The correct option, ₹59,68,048 crores, reflects a specific snapshot of India's economic health. The other choices with higher or lower values might misrepresent the actual data, emphasizing the need to recall or calculate the exact figure from reliable sources like the RBI's official publications.

Pipe A fills 1/6 of the tank per minute. In 2 minutes, it fills 2/6 = 1/3. Remaining: 2/3. Pipe A and B together: 1/6 - 1/12 = 1/12 per minute. Time to fill 2/3: (2/3)/(1/12) = 8 minutes. Option C is correct; others miscalculate combined rates.

The answer depends on the allocation to the Khelo India Programme in the FY 2025-26 Budget. The correct answer is ₹1,000 crore. The Khelo India Programme, aimed at promoting sports in India, received this specific allocation. The other options (₹500 crore, ₹750 crore, ₹1,500 crore) are plausible but incorrect figures, emphasizing the need to recall exact budgetary allocations for such flagship programmes.

The code for 'f' appears in both examples with a consistent shift. In the first example, 'f' is associated with '5483', and in the second, 'f' is linked to '2348'. However, the item asks for the code of 'f' in the second instance, where 'f' corresponds to '2' (from '2348'). Option B is correct as it directly matches this association.

The curved surface area (CSA) of a cylinder is 2πrh. Given CSA = 924 cm² and height (h) = 14 cm, solve for radius (r): 2π*14*r = 924 → r = 924 / (28π) ≈ 924 / 87.96 ≈ 10.5 cm. Diameter = 2r ≈ 21 cm. Option A is correct. Errors may arise from using diameter instead of radius in the formula or miscalculating 924/28.

Key point: identifying the pattern in letter-clusters. Each option has two letters followed by a relation. Analyzing the pairs: HL to DE: H(8) to D(4) is -4, L(12) to E(5) is -7. CG to YA: C(3) to Y(25) is +22, G(7) to A(1) is -6. DH to ZB: D(4) to Z(26) is +22, H(8) to B(2) is -6. UY to QS: U(21) to Q(17) is -4, Y(25) to S(19) is -6. The pattern for three options involves differences of +22 and -6. Option A's differences are -4 and -7, which don't fit. So, A is the odd one out. Correct answer A. The other choices might focus on different patterns or letter positions.