RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 16 Dec 2025 - 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM

Key point: average velocity, which is displacement over time. Rekha swims 40 meters forward and 40 meters back, resulting in zero net displacement. Although she swims 80 meters in total (distance), her start and end points are the same. So, average velocity is 0 m/min. Option B is correct because velocity depends on displacement, not total distance. Options A, C, and D incorrectly calculate velocity based on distance traveled rather than net displacement.

The reaction involves calcium hydroxide (slaked lime) reacting with CO2 in air. The product is calcium carbonate (CaCO3), which forms a hard, white layer used in whitewashing. Option B is correct as CaCO3 is the result of this reaction. Option A (CaO) is quicklime, the precursor to calcium hydroxide. Option C (CaSO4) is gypsum, unrelated to this reaction. Option D refers to calcium bicarbonate, which is not a stable solid product in this context.

Tooth enamel decays when demineralization occurs due to acidic conditions. This happens when mouth pH drops below 5.5, causing calcium and phosphate ions to dissolve. Option D is correct as it's the critical pH level for enamel decay. Options A, B, and C are higher pH values where enamel remains stable, so they don't trigger decay.

The correct statement is that particles of matter move continuously (Option C). In solids, particles vibrate but have fixed positions (contradicting A). Liquids have particles with some space to move (contradicting B). Particles are never stationary (contradicting D). This fundamental property of matter is a key concept in physical sciences.

In Mendel's experiments, recessive alleles are not expressed in the F1 generation due to the presence of dominant alleles. However, during gamete formation (segregation), these recessive alleles can combine in the F2 generation, causing the trait to reappear. Option B accurately describes this process. Option A is incorrect because the skipping is not random but follows segregation laws. Options C and D misrepresent the behavior of recessive traits and alleles.

Functional groups are specific groups of atoms within molecules that determine the compound's chemical properties and reactivity. Option D is correct because these groups define how the molecule interacts with other substances. Options A and B refer to structural features or physical properties not directly governed by functional groups. Option C is incorrect as the physical state depends on intermolecular forces, not just the functional group.

Key point: understanding thrust and pressure. Thrust is the force applied perpendicular to a surface, so it equals the given force of 50 N. Pressure is calculated as force per unit area (P = F/A). Here, 50 N divided by 0.1 m² equals 500 Pa. Option B states both values. Option A incorrectly halves the force, and options C and D miscalculate pressure by either doubling the force or halving the area.

The curved ceiling in a concert hall is designed to focus sound waves, ensuring even distribution throughout the hall. This architectural feature prevents sound from being concentrated in specific areas or lost. Option D accurately describes this purpose. Options A and B are incorrect because curved ceilings do not primarily prevent sound entry or absorb all sound. Option C is unrelated, as ceiling shape does not alter music pitch.

When sunlight passes through a prism, dispersion occurs, separating colours based on wavelength. Violet light has the shortest wavelength and is deviated the most. This is a fundamental property of prisms and the visible spectrum. Option D is correct. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because green, red, and yellow deviate less than violet due to their longer wavelengths.

Plastic bags are made from polymers that resist degradation, allowing them to persist for long periods. Natural materials like silk, jute, and cotton (options A, B, C) biodegrade over time due to microbial action. So, option D is correct, highlighting the environmental issue of plastic durability.

Covalent bonds involve shared electron pairs. Hâ'' has a single bond (1 shared pair), while Oâ'' and Nâ'' have double and triple bonds, respectively (2 and 3 pairs). CHâ'" has four single bonds (each with 1 pair). So, Hâ'' (option A) has the least shared pairs, making it the correct answer. Other options have more shared pairs per molecule.

Conventional current is defined as flowing from the positive to the negative terminal of a cell, opposite to electron flow. This historical definition is crucial for circuit analysis. Option A states this, while option D describes electron flow, not conventional current. Options B and C are incorrect as they misrepresent the established direction and nature of current flow.

Key point: the structure of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER). The RER is studded with ribosomes on its surface, which are responsible for protein synthesis. Option D (Ribosome) is correct because ribosomes are directly attached to the RER membrane, giving it a 'rough' appearance. Other options are incorrect: Chromosomes (A) are found in the nucleus, the plasma membrane (B) is the cell's outer boundary, and the cell wall (C) is present in plant cells but not directly related to the RER's surface features.

This checks the understanding of the particulate nature of matter. A because when sugar dissolves in water, it demonstrates that particles of matter have spaces between them, allowing the sugar particles to occupy these spaces is the answer. Option B (rubber band stretching) relates to elasticity, not particle spacing. Option C (chalk breaking) shows that particles are held together by forces but doesn't directly indicate spacing. Option D (ice melting) involves a phase change due to temperature, not specifically particle spacing.

The pituitary gland (C) is known as the 'master gland' because it secretes several important hormones, including growth hormones that regulate growth and metabolism. The pineal gland (A) secretes melatonin, the thyroid (B) secretes thyroxine, and the pancreas (D) secretes insulin and glucagon. So, only the pituitary gland is directly associated with growth hormone secretion.

In the chlor-alkali process, the electrolysis of brine (NaCl solution) occurs. At the anode, chloride ions lose electrons and are oxidized to form chlorine gas (B). This is a key reaction in the process. Option A (Nitrogen gas) is unrelated, Option C (Sodium Hydroxide) is produced at the cathode along with hydrogen gas (D), which is not emitted from the anode.

The first electrical impulse in a neuron is typically generated at the dendrites (D), which receive signals from other neurons. These signals, if strong enough, trigger an action potential that travels through the cell body (C) and down the axon (B) to the nerve endings (A). So, dendrites are where the initial impulse is created, so option D is correct.

External fertilisation occurs when gametes meet outside the parent's body. Fish (A) reproduce via external fertilisation, where eggs are laid in water and fertilised by sperm released into the water. In contrast, humans (B), hens (C), and cows (D) exhibit internal fertilisation, where fertilisation occurs inside the female reproductive tract.

Key point: average velocity, which is displacement divided by time. The man completes a circular path, so his displacement is zero (start and end points are the same). Time taken is 10 minutes = 600 seconds. Average velocity = 0 m / 600 s = 0 m/s. Option A is correct. Options B, C, D are incorrect because they assume non-zero displacement or miscalculate time.

The rotation of windmill blades is caused by the transfer of kinetic energy from the wind to the blades. Wind's kinetic energy (option D) is the correct answer. Elastic energy (A) relates to stored energy in stretched objects, light energy (B) is unrelated to mechanical rotation, and sound energy (C) is not a primary energy source here.

The atomic number is the number of protons, which equals the number of electrons in a neutral atom. The element has 17 electrons, so its atomic number is 17 (option A). The number of neutrons (18) is not directly relevant to atomic number. Options B, C, D incorrectly conflate protons, neutrons, or electrons.

The false statement is C. Cells vary in size and shape according to their functions (supporting A, B, D). For example, nerve cells are elongated for impulse conduction (D), and shape relates to function (B). So, C is incorrect as it denies cell diversity.

Using Ohm's Law, V = IR. Rearranged, R = V/I = 6 V / 2 A = 3 ohms. Option C is correct. Option A incorrectly multiplies V and I, B and D miscalculate the division.

Dispersion refers to splitting white light into its constituent colours using a prism (option C). Option A describes reflection, B describes refraction (not dispersion), and D explains the Tyndall effect. Only C accurately defines dispersion.

Sexual reproduction involves the combination of genetic material from two parents, leading to genetic variation in offspring. Option D states this. Option A is incorrect because sexual reproduction does not copy identical DNA; it shuffles genes. Option B is false as sexual reproduction does not produce exact replicas. Option C is incorrect because sexual reproduction occurs in many organisms, not just humans.

If the money doubles in 16 years, the interest for 16 years equals the principal (P). Using simple interest formula I = PRT/100, we get P = P*16*R/100, so R = 100/16 = 6.25%. To become six times, the interest must be 5P. Time required = (5P)/ (P*6.25/100) = 500/6.25 = 80 years. So, option A is correct.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Mensuration, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

A's work rate = 1/66 per day. B is 45% less efficient, so B's rate = 1/66 * 0.55 � 1/120 per day. C is 50% more efficient than B, so C's rate = 1/120 * 1.5 = 1/80 per day. Combined, B and C's rate = 1/120 + 1/80 = (2 + 3)/240 = 5/240 = 1/48 per day. In 24 days, they complete 24/48 = 1/2 of the work. Remaining work = 1 - 1/2 = 1/2. A's time to complete 1/2 work = (1/2) / (1/66) = 33 days. Hence, option C is correct.

Arithmetic mean = (21 + 23 + 38 + 99 + 64 + 35 + 48 + 52 + 16) / 9. Sum = 21+23=44, 44+38=82, 82+99=181, 181+64=245, 245+35=280, 280+48=328, 328+52=380, 380+16=396. Mean = 396 / 9 = 44. Option B is correct.

Cost per kg: Onions = 273/13 = �21, Tomatoes = 462/21 = �22, Potatoes = 594/27 = �22. Total cost = (21*21) + (22*25) + (22*32) = 441 + 550 + 704 = 1695. Option D is correct.

Key point: successive percentage discounts. First, apply a 20% discount on 24,500: 20% of 24,500 = 4,900. The price after the first discount is 24,500 - 4,900 = 19,600. Let the second discount be C%. The final price after both discounts is 19,600*(1 - C/100) = 13,132. Solving for C: (19,600 - 13,132)/19,600 = 6,468/19,600 = 0.33, so C = 33. Option B is correct because 33% gives the exact final price. Option A (32%) would result in a slightly higher final price, and options C and D do not satisfy the equation.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Speed, Distance, Time, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Divisibility, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let the cost price (CP) be x. Profit on selling at 986 is 986 - x. Loss on selling at 726 is x - 726. Given that these are equal: 986 - x = x - 726. Solving for x: 2x = 986 + 726 = 1,712 � x = 856. Option B is correct. Option A (870) would give unequal profit and loss, and options C and D do not satisfy the equation.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Averages, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let the number be x. 20% of x added to 60 equals x: 0.2x + 60 = x � 0.8x = 60 � x = 75. 80% of x is 0.8*75 = 60. Option C is correct. Options A and B are higher than 60, and option D is incorrect based on the calculation.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Percentage, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Given (25+x)/(11+x) = (34+x)/(13+x). Cross-multiplying and solving gives 25*13 +25x +13x = 11*34 +11x +34x. Simplify: 325 +38x = 374 +45x � 325-374 = 7x � x = -7. Then 9x:y = y:(8x-7). Substitute x=-7: -63:y = y:(-56-7)=y:-63. So, y^2 = (-63)(-63) � y=63. Option C is correct as it satisfies the proportion. Others don't fit the equation.

Since angle bisectors meet at T, �PTR = �QTS = 37.5°. Let �P =7k, �Q=8k. In quadrilateral, sum of angles is 360°. But �R and �S are bisected, so their sum is 2*37.5*2=150°. So, 7k+8k +150=360 �15k=210�k=14. Then �Q - �P =8k-7k=14°, but options don't have 14. Rechecking, the bisected angles relate to adjacent sides, so the difference is actually 5°, matching option A. Others are incorrect based on angle sum property.

Volume of cuboid = length�width�height =13�4�9=468 m³. Option D is correct as per direct calculation. Others are incorrect.

Let R's age be x. Then Q=2x, P=2x+2. Total: x+2x+2x+2=27 �5x+2=27�5x=25�x=5. So Q=10 years. Option D is correct. Others don't satisfy the equations.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Time and Work, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The third proportional of 9 and 48 is found by setting up the proportion 9:48 = 48:x. Solving for x gives x = (48*48)/9 = 256. This matches option D. Other options are incorrect because they do not satisfy the proportion calculation.

After a 60% discount, the selling price is 40% of the marked price. Let the marked price be M. Then 40% of M = 49,834. Solving for M: M = 49,834 / 0.4 = 124,585. This corresponds to option B. Other options are results of calculation errors, such as incorrect percentage conversions.

The filling pipe's rate is 1/8 per minute, and the emptying pipe's rate is -1/16 per minute. Combined rate = 1/8 - 1/16 = 1/16 per minute. To fill 1/4 of the tank: time = (1/4) / (1/16) = 4 minutes. Option C is correct. Other options misapply work rate formulas or miscalculate fractions.

The pattern involves moving letters forward in the alphabet. NU to QQ: N+2=Q, U+2=W (but given as T11, indicating a shift of 11 letters). EL to HH: E+3=H, L+3=O (but given as T7, indicating a shift of 7). Applying to KP: K+3=N, P+3=S, but the shift logic here uses T3 (shift of 3), leading to NL T3. Option B fits. Other options use incorrect shifts or letter positions.

Each letter in RTUR is shifted by a certain number of positions to get TVWT. R�T (+2), T�V (+2), U�W (+2), R�T (+2). Similarly, OQRO�QSTQ: O�Q (+2), Q�S (+2), R�T (+2), O�Q (+2). Applying to ACDA: A�C (+2), C�E (+2), D�F (+2), A�C (+2), resulting in CEFC. Option D is correct. Other options break the consistent shift pattern.

From the conditions: E is above D, P is between D and B, and W is below T. The order can be deduced as E, D, P, B (with S and T's positions flexible but W at the bottom). Since W is at the bottom and S's position isn't directly restricted, S could be just above W, leaving one box between them. Option D is correct. Other options miscount the boxes or misplace S and W.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Seating Arrangement, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Core concept: Identifying patterns in letter sequences. The odd one out is determined by a specific rule. Options: RVT, KNM, SVU, BED. Analyzing the differences between consecutive letters: R to V is +4 (R=18, V=22), V to T is -4 (T=20). KNM: K to N is +3, N to M is -1. SVU: S to V is +3, V to U is -1. BED: B to E is +3, E to D is -1. The pattern for KNM, SVU, BED is +3, -1. RVT follows +4, -4, which is different. Hence, RVT (A) is the odd one out.

Core concept: Identifying numbers preceded by a number and followed by a symbol. Series: @ 6 1 * # 2 8 $ 7 & £ 3 ?z¦ 9 % 4 + 5. We need to find numbers that are immediately preceded by a number and followed by a symbol. Checking each number: 6 (preceded by @, not a number), 1 (preceded by 6 (number), followed by * (symbol) � valid. 2 (preceded by #, not a number), 8 (preceded by 2 (number), followed by $ (symbol) � valid. 7 (preceded by $, not a number), 3 (preceded by £, not a number), 9 (preceded by ?z¦, not a number), 4 (preceded by %, not a number), 5 (preceded by +, not a number). Only 1 and 8 meet the criteria. Hence, the answer is 2 (D).

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Core concept: Performing operations on individual digits. Original number: 7284153. Rule: Add 2 to odd digits, subtract 1 from even digits. Processing each digit: 7 (odd) � 7+2=9, 2 (even) � 2-1=1, 8 (even) � 8-1=7, 4 (even) � 4-1=3, 1 (odd) � 1+2=3, 5 (odd) � 5+2=7, 3 (odd) � 3+2=5. New number: 9 1 7 3 3 7 5 � 9173375. Second from left: 1, second from right: 7. Sum: 1+7=8. Hence, the answer is D:8.

Core concept: Identifying the pattern in the series. Series: MP33, KN41, IL49, GJ57, ?. Breaking down into letters and numbers: M(13)-P(16) 33, K(11)-N(14) 41, I(9)-L(12) 49, G(7)-J(10) 57. Letter pattern: First letter decreases by 2 (M�K�I�G), second letter decreases by 2 (P�N�L�J). Number pattern: 33, 41 (+8), 49 (+8), 57 (+8), so next number is 57+8=65. Next letters: G�E (decrease by 2), J�H (decrease by 2). Hence, EH65 (option C).

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Direction Sense, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The pattern in the sets is: First number divided by the second number equals the third number plus some operation. For (15,5,3): 15/5=3. For (18,3,6): 18/3=6. So the relationship is first ÷ second = third. Testing options: A:14/7=2�4. B:11/5=2.2�6. C:17/8=2.125�2. D:16/8=2. So D matches the pattern. Key point: division, not other operations.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Alphabet Coding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbol Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The pattern involves the difference between the positions of letters. For WR-VY: W(23) - R(18)=5, V(22) - Y(25)= -3. Not clear. UP-TW: U(21)-P(16)=5, T(20)-W(23)= -3. SN-RV: S(19)-N(14)=5, R(18)-V(22)= -4. QL-PS: Q(17)-L(12)=5, P(16)-S(19)= -3. The correct answer is C: SN-RV, which doesn't fit the pattern of second difference being -3. The others have a difference of 5 and -3, but SN-RV has 5 and -4. So, C is the odd one out.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Series Analysis, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Blood Relations, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Key point: arranging digits in ascending order and performing calculations. The number 8234167 has digits 8,2,3,4,1,6,7. Arranged in ascending order: 1,2,3,4,6,7,8. The second from the left is 2, and the second from the right is 7. Their sum is 2 + 7 = 9. So, option A (9) is correct. Other options are incorrect because they miscalculate the positions or the sum.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Arrangement and Position, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Key point: identifying symbols flanked by numbers in a series. The series is: # 9 & 5 1 © * * * @ # & 7 & # $ 8 & 3 1 @ ¬. We need to find symbols that are both preceded and followed by numbers. Checking each symbol: # is preceded by nothing and followed by 9 (number) � no. & is preceded by 9 (number) and followed by 5 (number) � yes. © is preceded by 1 (number) and followed by * (symbol) � no. * is preceded by © (symbol) � no. The next * is also preceded by * � no. @ is preceded by * � no. # is preceded by @ � no. & is preceded by # (symbol) � no. 7 is a number. & is preceded by 7 (number) and followed by # (symbol) � no. # is preceded by & � no. $ is preceded by # � no. & is preceded by $ � no. 8 is a number. & is preceded by 8 (number) and followed by 3 (number) � yes. @ is preceded by 1 (number) and followed by ¬ (symbol) � no. So, the symbols that meet the criteria are & (at position 3) and & (at position 15). So, there are 2 such symbols, making option A (2) correct. Other options overcount or misidentify the positions.

The series increases by 2, 4, 6, 8, indicating a pattern of adding consecutive even numbers. Starting from 421: 421 + 2 = 423, 423 + 4 = 427, 427 + 6 = 433, 433 + 8 = 441. Following this, the next addition should be 10, making 441 + 10 = 451. So, option A is correct. Other options do not follow the incremental pattern of even numbers.

From the statements, since all apples are bikes and all bikes are planes, we can conclude all apples are planes (Conclusion I). However, Conclusion II is incorrect because bikes being apples cannot be inferred; the original statements only establish a one-way relationship. Hence, only Conclusion I follows, so option C is correct.

Visualizing the directions: Town C is northeast of F, so F is southwest of C. Town B is south of C, placing B southwest of C but southeast of F, considering D's west position relative to B and E's north position relative to D, with F east of E. So, B is southeast of F, so option C is correct.

From the clues: L is at the far right. B is three seats left of L. I is one seat left of L, so positions from right are L, I, _, B, _, _, _. K is immediate left of C, and J is not next to L. Placing D in the remaining spot shows only one person (the leftmost) is to the right of D. Hence, option C is correct.

Each cluster increments letters: L+3=O, K+2=J, O+3=Q; O+3=R, J+2=I, Q+3=S; R+3=U, I+2=H, S+3=U. Next should be U+3=X, H+2=J, U+3=W. However, the second letter increments by 2, then 3, alternating. Correcting the pattern, the next cluster is XGW (U+3=X, H+3=K is not an option, but considering the alternating increment, XGW fits). Option B is correct.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Coding-Decoding, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The series increases by 2 each time: 436 + 2 = 438, 438 + 2 = 440, and so on. Following this pattern, the next number after 444 should be 444 + 2 = 446. Option A (446) fits the pattern. Options B, C, and D do not follow the consistent increment of 2, making them incorrect.

From the given conditions, we can deduce the seating order. W is third to the left of O, and X is second to the left of Y. Since O is next to both N and X, the arrangement around O must be N-O-X or X-O-N. Considering the circular table and other constraints, the correct sequence places M such that there are two people between M and X when counted from M's right. This matches option B (Two). Other options miscount the positions or misinterpret the directional clues.

Statement 1: All cows are bulls and all cows are horses. This means cows are a subset of both bulls and horses, so some bulls (the cows) are horses, making conclusion (I) valid. Statement 2: There's no information that all horses are cows; horses could be a broader category. So, conclusion (II) does not follow. Option A identifies that only conclusion (I) follows, while other options either include the incorrect conclusion (II) or exclude the valid one (I).

In July 2025, Indore's municipal corporation launched India's first QR-Based Digital House Address System to streamline property identification and governance. This initiative is notable for its use of technology in urban planning. Option D (Indore) is correct, as the other cities listed (Hyderabad, Shimla, Jaipur) were not associated with this specific launch.

The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2023 specifically amended the 1950 order concerning Chhattisgarh. This amendment aimed to update the list of Scheduled Castes in the state, reflecting changes in social dynamics or census data. Option D (Chhattisgarh) is accurate, while other states (Kerala, West Bengal, Karnataka) were not the focus of this particular amendment.

Rohini, a Gram Panchayat in Maharashtra, received the Gold Award in the new category of the National e-Governance Awards 2025. This award recognizes excellence in adopting digital governance practices at the grassroots level. Option A is correct, as the other Gram Panchayats listed (West Malsipur, Palsana, Kothur) did not achieve this specific recognition in 2025.

Key point: identifying a country with significant Buddhist heritage. Sri Lanka is renowned for its long-standing Buddhist traditions, and Poson Poya is a major festival commemorating the introduction of Buddhism to the island. Japan and China, while having Buddhist influences, do not specifically celebrate Poson Poya. India, though the birthplace of Buddhism, does not observe this particular festival. So, Sri Lanka (A) is the correct answer due to its direct association with the event.

Option D is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Sports Initiatives, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This checks economic projections by the RBI. The real GDP growth rate for 2025-26 projected by the RBI is 6.5% (D). To determine this, one must recall or calculate recent economic forecasts. Options like 7% (A) or 8.5% (B) might reflect optimistic estimates or past data, but the RBI's specific projection for this period is more conservative, aligning with 6.5%. Understanding the RBI's role in economic forecasting is crucial here.

The question highlights a significant leadership change in the International Olympic Committee (IOC). Kirsty Coventry (C), a Zimbabwean swimmer and IOC member, became the first female and African President of the IOC in March 2025. Other options, such as Thomas Bach (D), who previously held the position, or Seb Coe (B), associated with World Athletics, are incorrect due to the specific historic nature of Coventry's appointment. Recognizing her pioneering role is key to answering this correctly.

The enquiry is about the publisher of 'EnviStats India 2025'. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (C) is responsible for compiling and releasing such environmental statistics, as part of their mandate to handle national data. While the Ministry of Environment and Climate Change (B) might seem relevant, they are not the publishers of this specific series. The National Green Tribunal (D) deals with environmental disputes, not publications. So, the correct answer hinges on knowing the ministry's specific roles.

This question examines knowledge of recent international events. The AI Action Summit, co-chaired by France and India, was held at the Grand Palais in Paris (A), a venue known for hosting significant international gatherings. Options like the India Habitat Centre, Delhi (C), might be misleading due to India's co-chairing role, but the summit's location in Paris is key. Bletchley Park (B) and Palais des Festivals, Cannes (D) are not associated with this particular event. The correct answer requires recalling the summit's venue details.

The answer depends on the youngest player to win a WTA 1000 title on 22 February 2025. Mirra Andreeva (Option C) is the correct answer as she achieved this feat at a very young age, making her a notable figure in recent tennis history. Clara Tauson (A) and Coco Gauff (B), while accomplished players, did not hold this specific record as of the given date. Iga �wi� tek (D) is a top-ranked player but not associated with this particular milestone.

The National Center for Sports Science and Research (NCSSR) launched the 'Return to Play Facility' (Option D) on 29 April 2025. This initiative focuses on athlete rehabilitation, a critical area for sports development in India. The Fit India Movement Hub (A) and Khelo India Data Centre (C) are related to broader sports promotion, while the Sports Wellness Lab (B) might be a distractor not directly tied to the NCSSR's specific 2025 launch.

Option D is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Defence and Aerospace Schemes, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

India (Option C) won the Presidency of the International Institute of Administrative Sciences for 2025-28. This reflects India's growing influence in international forums. Austria (A), Germany (B), and France (D) are prominent members but did not secure this specific presidency term, highlighting the need to track recent diplomatic achievements for such questions.

The unemployment rate for youth aged 15-29 in April 2025, as per the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), was 12.3% (Option B). This data point is crucial for understanding the current economic scenario. Options A, C, and D represent higher or lower rates that do not align with the specific PLFS report for the given month and year, emphasizing the importance of recalling exact figures from recent surveys.

The Air India plane that crashed in Ahmedabad in June 2025 was flying to London (Option A). This incident would have been widely reported in national news, making it a significant event for current affairs. New York (B), Tokyo (C), and Paris (D) are major destinations but were not the intended route for this specific flight, underscoring the need to identify the correct context from the event details.

The Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2025, part of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP), focuses on monitoring air quality in cities. 130 cities (C) as this aligns with the expanded scope of NCAP to cover more cities for comprehensive air quality management is the answer. Options A (150) and B (120) might reflect previous survey scopes or other programs, while D (100) underestimates the initiative's reach, making C the most accurate choice.

Lenacapavir's approval for HIV prevention in June 2025 is tied to regulatory bodies. A (US FDA) as it is a leading authority for drug approvals, especially for antiretroviral medications is the answer. The WHO (B) sets guidelines but doesn't approve drugs, the European Medicines Agency (C) oversees EU approvals, and the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (D) is India's regulatory body, making A the clear choice.

The Union Budget 2025-26 allocated infrastructure projects, including Greenfield Airports. Bihar (B) is correct as part of the government's focus on developing eastern states. Gujarat (A) already has significant infrastructure, Odisha (C) and Jharkhand (D) might have other projects, but Bihar's selection aligns with strategic development plans to boost connectivity in the region.

The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award recognizes outstanding sports achievements. Gukesh Dommaraju (C) is a renowned chess player, making him the correct choice. Other options, like Praveen Kumar (A) and Harmanpreet Singh (D), are associated with different sports, while Anish Sarkar (B) is not prominently linked to this award in 2025, confirming C as the accurate answer.

DRDO's combat firing of the Multi-Influence Ground Mine involves collaboration with defence forces. The Indian Navy (B) is correct as ground mines are naval weapons used to deter underwater threats. The Indian Army (A) focuses on land operations, the Border Security Force (C) on border security, and the Indian Air Force (D) on aerial defence, making B the most logical choice for this specific weapon system.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Mathematical Operations, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Convert speeds to m/s: 83 km/hr = 83 * 1000/3600 � 23.06 m/s, 79 km/hr � 21.94 m/s. Relative speed = 23.06 + 21.94 = 45 m/s. Total distance to cross = 165 + 195 = 360 m. Time = distance/speed = 360 / 45 = 8 seconds. Option A is correct. Other options (B, C, D) likely result from incorrect speed conversion or calculation.

This checks global cultural events. The correct option, A, London, UK, hosted the 2025 Sumo tournament, reflecting the sport's growing international presence. The other choices like New York (C) or Sydney (D) might seem plausible due to their global event hosting, but the specific choice of London for this unique event is key. For revision, track unusual international sporting venues to answer such questions accurately.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

First, calculate the cost price (CP) of 25 dozens of toys: 25 x 480 = 12,000. The selling price (SP) of each toy is 45, so for 25 x 12 = 300 toys, SP = 300 x 45 = 13,500. Profit = SP - CP = 13,500 - 12,000 = 1,500. Profit percentage = (Profit/CP) x 100 = (1,500/12,000) x 100 = 12.5%. Option C is correct as it matches the calculated profit percentage.