RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 22 Dec 2025 - 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM

This checks understanding of the pressure-temperature relationship in gases at constant volume, governed by Gay-Lussac's Law. The law states that pressure is directly proportional to temperature when volume is constant. Increasing temperature raises the kinetic energy of gas molecules, leading to more collisions with container walls, thus increasing pressure. Option C is correct. Option B is incorrect because temperature change affects pressure. Option D contradicts the direct relationship. Option A is invalid as the relationship is determinable.

Formula unit mass refers specifically to ionic compounds, calculated by summing the atomic masses of constituent ions as per the formula. Option B correctly defines this, distinguishing it from molecular compounds. Option A describes molar mass, which applies broadly to elements and compounds. Option C refers to atomic mass of a single element, not a compound. Option D explains molecular mass, relevant to covalent molecules, not ionic formula units.

Hypermetropia, or farsightedness, occurs when the eyeball is too short or the lens loses flexibility, causing nearby objects to appear blurry. Convex lenses (Option A) correct this by converging light rays before they enter the eye, allowing clear focus on close objects. Concave lenses (B) diverge light, correcting myopia. Prism (C) and cylindrical lenses (D) address other vision issues like astigmatism or double vision, not hypermetropia.

Macronutrients are required in large amounts for growth and energy. Potassium (C), a mineral, is a macronutrient essential for nerve function and fluid balance. Copper (A), zinc (B), and iron (D) are micronutrients (trace elements), needed in smaller quantities. This distinction eliminates options A, B, and D, confirming C as correct.

Smooth muscles lack striations (B), which are characteristic of cardiac and skeletal muscles. Option B is false, making it the correct answer. Smooth muscle cells are spindle-shaped (A), control involuntary actions like digestion (C), and are typically uninucleate (D), all true statements. The absence of striations is a key identifying feature of smooth muscle tissue.

Contraceptive pills primarily prevent pregnancy by regulating hormones (D) and are effective with proper use (B), though side effects like nausea can occur (C). However, they do not protect against sexually transmitted infections (A), which is a common misconception. Protection against STIs requires barrier methods like condoms. So, statement A is incorrect, making it the right choice.

Key point: the definition of the volt, the SI unit of potential difference. Option A states that 1 V is defined as 1 joule of work done to move a charge of 1 coulomb. This aligns with the formula V = W/Q, where work (W) in joules divided by charge (Q) in coulombs gives volts. Option B refers to power (1 J/s = 1 W), not potential difference. Option C describes Ohm's Law (V = IR), which relates voltage, current, and resistance but doesn't define the volt. Option D defines current (I = Q/t), not voltage. So, A is correct as it directly addresses the energy per charge relationship.

This checks understanding of light scattering and the Tyndall effect. Option C is incorrect because the sky appears blue due to Rayleigh scattering, where shorter wavelengths (blue) scatter more in the atmosphere, not because air absorbs blue light. Absorption would mean the color is removed, but scattering redirects the blue light to our eyes. Options A and B are correct statements about wavelength dependence and scattering. Option D is also correct, as the Tyndall effect involves scattering in colloids. The error in C makes it the answer.

This question assesses reactivity series knowledge. Metals below hydrogen (like gold, copper, silver) don't react with dilute HCl to produce H2 gas, while those above (like zinc) do. Zinc (C) reacts as it displaces hydrogen: Zn + 2HCl � ZnCl2 + H2. Options A, B, and D are unreactive in this context, so option C is correct.

Oxidation of ethanol involves gaining oxygen or losing hydrogen. Ethanol (C2H5OH) oxidizes to ethanoic acid (C2H4O2) in the presence of an oxidizing agent like KMnO4, so option C is correct. Option A refers to dehydration (removing H2O to form ethene), not oxidation. Option B describes esterification, a different reaction. Option D is unrelated, as methane is not a typical oxidation product of ethanol. Key point: recognizing the oxidation state change in ethanol's carbon.

Acceleration is calculated using a = �v/�t. Starting from rest (initial velocity 0 m/s), final velocity is 5 m/s over 25 seconds. So, a = (5 - 0)/25 = 0.2 m/s². Option A matches this calculation. Common mistakes might average velocity or misapply formulas, but the direct computation confirms A as correct.

Work done is calculated as W = F � d � cosθ. Here, force (20 N) and displacement (5 m) are in the same direction (θ = 0°, cosθ = 1). So, W = 20 � 5 � 1 = 100 J, matching option D. Options A and B miscalculate the product of F and d, while C incorrectly squares the force. Key point: recognizing the scalar nature of work and the cosine factor when angles are involved.

Key point: the distinction between internal and external fertilisation. Internal fertilisation occurs when the male gamete fertilises the female gamete inside the female body, which is the case in humans and many animals. Option D is correct because it directly states this definition. Options A and B refer to in vitro fertilisation, which happens outside the body (e.g., test-tube babies), making them incorrect. Option C describes external fertilisation, common in aquatic organisms, which also does not fit the question's context.

Carbon's versatility arises from its ability to form long chains (catenation), bond with various elements, and exhibit different allotropes. The question likely refers to these properties (a, b, c). Since all these aspects contribute to carbon's versatility, the correct answer is D. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they exclude one or more key characteristics that define carbon's unique nature.

Thyroxin, a hormone produced by the thyroid gland, regulates metabolism. In its absence, metabolic activities slow down or become imbalanced, leading to conditions like hypothyroidism. Option D accurately describes this effect. Option B is incorrect because metabolism does not stop completely; it merely slows. Option C is the opposite of what happens, as thyroxin typically stimulates metabolism. Option A is too narrow, as thyroxin affects the entire metabolic process, not just digestion.

The atomic number is defined as the number of protons in an atom's nucleus, which determines the element's identity. Option B states this definition. Option A refers to the valency, related to electrons in the outermost shell. Option C describes the mass number (protons + neutrons), and Option D defines isotopes based on neutron count. So, only Option B matches the idea of atomic number.

Locomotion refers to the movement of an organism from one place to another. Plants exhibit movement (e.g., growth towards light) but not locomotion, as they cannot change their location. Option D is correct. Options A, B, and C (humans, birds, dogs) all demonstrate locomotion, making them incorrect. This distinction is crucial in biology for understanding organismal behaviour.

Assertion (A) is true because losing oxygen is a reduction (gain of electrons). Reason (R) correctly defines reduction as the gain of hydrogen or loss of oxygen, aligning with the concept that reduction involves electron gain. Since R accurately explains A, the correct answer is C. Other options fail to recognise the validity of both statements and their direct relationship.

Key point: the relationship between resistance and the physical dimensions of a conductor. Resistance (R) is given by R = �(L/A), where � is resistivity, L is length, and A is cross-sectional area. When the wire is stretched to twice its length (2L) while keeping the volume constant, the area becomes A/2 (since volume = L*A, so 2L*(A/2) = L*A). Substituting into the formula, new R = �(2L/(A/2)) = 4�(L/A) = 4R. Option C is correct because it directly follows from this calculation. Options A and D incorrectly apply the proportionalities, and B is irrelevant as resistance cannot be zero in this scenario.

The question focuses on hormones and their functions in the human body. Testosterone is the male sex hormone responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics and sexual maturation in boys. Progesterone (A) is involved in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy, estrogen (B) is the primary female sex hormone, and oxytocin (D) is related to childbirth and lactation. So, option C is correct as it accurately identifies the hormone's role, while the others are associated with different functions or genders.

This question applies Newton's law of universal gravitation: F = G*(M*m)/r². Using the Earth's mass (�5.97�10²� kg), the Moon's mass (�7.35�10²² kg), and the average Earth-Moon distance (�3.84�10� m), along with the gravitational constant G = 6.67�10�¹¹ N·m²/kg², the calculation yields a force of approximately 2.02�10²� N. Option A matches this result. Option B is the acceleration due to gravity on Earth, not the gravitational force. Option C overestimates the force, and D is the value of G itself, not the calculated force.

This checks plant tissue types. Sclerenchyma (A) cells are indeed dead at maturity, providing structural support. Aerenchyma (B) consists of air-filled spaces in aquatic plants, collenchyma (C) cells are alive and flexible, and parenchyma (D) cells are alive and involved in various functions like photosynthesis. So, option A is correct because it accurately describes sclerenchyma, while the other options describe tissues with living cells or different functions.

The correct explanation lies in carbon's electronic configuration. Carbon has four valence electrons and achieves a stable octet by sharing electrons with other atoms, forming covalent bonds. Option C states this, while A is incorrect as carbon does not donate all its electrons (typical of metals). B is false because carbon is reactive due to its incomplete octet, and D is inaccurate as carbon forms covalent networks rather than positive ions.

The statement in option D is correct because sound propagation requires a medium (like air, water, or solids) to transfer vibrations. Option A is incorrect as sound travels as longitudinal waves in air, not transverse. Option B is false since a vacuum cannot transmit sound. Option C is incorrect because sound travels faster in solids than in gases due to the closer packing of particles, which allows for quicker transfer of vibrations.

Newton's Third Law states that for every action, there's an equal and opposite reaction. Options A, B, and C all involve pairs of forces: rocket and expelled gases, horse and cart, gun and bullet. These are action-reaction pairs. However, option D describes a stone in free fall, which involves gravity acting on the stone, but the reaction force (stone pulling Earth upward) isn't mentioned or relevant here. So, D isn't a direct example of the Third Law as it doesn't highlight a pair of forces.

Cost price (CP) is 80% of the selling price (SP). Given SP = �100, CP = 80% of 100 = �80. Profit = SP - CP = �20. Profit percentage = (Profit/CP) * 100 = (20/80)*100 = 25%. Option C is correct because it accurately calculates the profit percentage relative to the cost price, not the selling price. Options A and D incorrectly use SP as the base or miscalculate the percentage.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Decimal Operations, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Original edge length = a, original surface area = 6a². Increased edge length = 1.1a, new surface area = 6*(1.1a)² = 6*1.21a² = 7.26a². Increase in surface area = 7.26a² - 6a² = 1.26a². Percentage increase = (1.26a² / 6a²)*100 = 21%. Option C is correct because the surface area of a cube depends on the square of its edge length, so a 10% increase in edge length results in a 21% increase in surface area, not a linear 20% increase.

Buying 6 and getting 2 free means paying for 6 out of 8 items. The discount is on 2 out of 8, which is 2/8 = 1/4 = 25%. Option B is correct as the effective discount is 25%, calculated by the proportion of free items to the total items purchased. Other options miscalculate the proportion or misapply the discount percentage.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Average Calculation, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let the original shares of A, B, and C be x, y, z. After deducting 65, 39, 77, the ratio becomes 18:3:20. So, (x-65)/(y-39) = 18/3 = 6 and (y-39)/(z-77) = 3/20. Solving these equations, we get x-65 = 6(y-39) and y-39 = 3(z-77)/20. Also, x+y+z = 4445. Substituting x = 6y - 234 + 65 = 6y - 169 and z = (20(y-39)/3) + 77 into the total sum equation, we solve for y and z. The difference between B's and C's shares is |y - z|. Calculations yield the difference as 1806, matching option A. The other choices usually come from incorrect ratio setup or arithmetic errors.

To find numbers �1000 divisible by 5 or 7, use inclusion-exclusion principle. Numbers divisible by 5: 1000/5 = 200. By 7: 1000/7 � 142. By both 5 and 7 (35): 1000/35 � 28. Total = 200 + 142 - 28 = 314. Option D is correct. The other choices may come from missing the overlap or miscalculating divisions.

Work done by A, B, C in 1 day is 1/3, 1/12, 1/12. Combined, they do 1/3 + 1/12 + 1/12 = 6/12 = 1/2 per day. For twice the work (2 units), time = 2 / (1/2) = 4 days. Option B is correct. The other choices might use harmonic mean incorrectly or misinterpret 'twice the work'.

Let original price be 100. After decreases: 100*0.55 = 55, 55*0.65 = 35.75, 35.75*0.7 = 25.025. Then 25.025*1.45 � 36.286. Percentage change = (36.286 - 100) = -63.714%, so �63.71% decrease. Option D is correct. The other choices may apply percentages incorrectly or round prematurely.

Total cost = 625 * 94 = 58,750. First discount 20%: 58,750 * 0.8 = 47,000. Second discount 7%: 47,000 * 0.93 = 43,710. Cash discount 20%: 43,710 * 0.8 = 34,968. Option B matches. The other choices might apply discounts in wrong order or miscalculate intermediate steps.

Let incomes be 5x and 8x. Savings are 81,000 each, so expenditures are 5x - 81,000 and 8x - 81,000. Expenditure ratio 2:4 = 1:2. So, (5x - 81000)/(8x - 81000) = 1/2. Solving: 10x - 162,000 = 8x - 81,000 � 2x = 81,000 � x = 40,500. David's income = 5x = 202,500. Option B is correct. The other choices may set up ratio inversely or miscalculate algebra.

To find the length of the train (X), use the formula: Total distance covered = speed � time. The total distance is the sum of the train's length and the platform's length (X + 213). Given speed = 63 m/s and time = 28 sec, the equation becomes X + 213 = 63 � 28. Calculate 63 � 28: 63 � 20 = 1260, 63 � 8 = 504; total = 1260 + 504 = 1764. So, X = 1764 - 213 = 1551. Option D is correct because it matches the calculated value. Other options are incorrect as they do not satisfy the equation.

Given the ratio of girls to boys is 2:5 and the number of girls is 200, set up the proportion 2/5 = 200/x, where x is the number of boys. Cross-multiplying gives 2x = 5 � 200 � 2x = 1000 � x = 500. Option B is correct as it directly follows from the ratio calculation. Other options do not maintain the 2:5 ratio with 200 girls.

Calculate the total distance: 40 + 50 + 60 = 150 km. Calculate the total time taken: (40/60) + (50/50) + (60/40) = (2/3) + 1 + 1.5 = 3.1667 hours. Average speed = Total distance / Total time = 150 / 3.1667 � 47.4 km/hr. Option A is correct as it matches the calculated average speed. Other options are incorrect due to miscalculations in time or averaging.

The formula for compound interest is A = P(1 + r/100)^n. Here, P = 4200, r = 20, n = 2. Calculate for the first year: 4200 � 1.2 = 5040. For the second year: 5040 � 1.2 = 6048. Option D is correct as it matches the final amount after 2 years. Other options are incorrect due to wrong application of the formula or calculation errors.

Let the daughter's current age be x. Then, the mother's age is 56 - x. After 8 years, their ages will be x + 8 and 56 - x + 8 = 64 - x. According to the problem, 64 - x = 3(x + 8). Solve: 64 - x = 3x + 24 � 64 - 24 = 4x � 40 = 4x � x = 10. Option A is correct as it satisfies the given conditions. Other options do not fulfill the age relationship after 8 years.

When a sphere is cut into 6 equal parts, each part is a hemisphere. The surface area of a sphere is 4�r². Cutting it into 6 parts adds new surfaces equal to the area of the cuts. Each cut creates two new surfaces of a semicircle (area = 2�r² for each cut). Three cuts add 3 � 2�r² = 6�r². Original surface area of the sphere is 4�(14)² = 784�. Total surface area of all pieces = 784� + 6�(14)² = 784� + 6�(196) = 784� + 1176� = 1960�. Calculate 1960 � 3.14 = 6160 (approx). Option C is correct as it matches the calculated total surface area. Other options are incorrect due to wrong calculation of added surfaces or approximation errors.

The median is the middle value when data is ordered. Original data sorted: 33, 35, 41, 46, 55, 58, 64, 77, 87, 90, 92. Median is the 6th term, which is 58. After replacing 92 with 99 and 41 with 43, new sorted data: 33, 35, 43, 46, 55, 58, 64, 77, 87, 90, 99. The number of observations is still 11, so the median remains the 6th term, which is 58. So, the correct answer is C.

Let the number of oranges be x. Then apples are x + 6. Total fruits: x + (x + 6) = 42. Solving 2x + 6 = 42 gives 2x = 36, so x = 18. Hence, the number of oranges is 18, which corresponds to option B.

The angle bisectors meet at T, and angle STR is 22.5°. The ratio of angles P and Q is 4:5. Let angle P = 4x and Q = 5x. In a quadrilateral, the sum of angles around a point is 360°, but since T is inside, the angles at T relate to the quadrilateral's angles. However, the key is the exterior angle theorem and the given ratio. The difference between Q and P is 5x - 4x = x. Using the given angle and ratio, solving for x gives x = 5°, so the difference is 5°, which is option B.

Using trigonometry, tan(60°) = height / 30. Tan(60°) = �3 � 1.73. So height = 30 * 1.73 = 51.9 m. So, the correct answer is B.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Number Theory, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Statements: All pencils are erasers (P � E). Some erasers are crayons (E � C). Conclusions: (I) Some pencils are crayons. This requires a direct link from P to C, which isn't necessarily true. (II) Some erasers are pencils. This is the converse of the first statement and isn't supported. However, since all pencils are erasers, it means some erasers are pencils (as pencils are a subset of erasers), making conclusion (II) valid. So, only conclusion (II) follows, which is option D.

Key point: linear seating arrangement with multiple conditions. A sits second from an extreme end, so possible positions are 2 or 6 (assuming 7 seats). With two people between A and C, and B immediately right of C, A must be at position 2 (A _ _ C B ...). One person between B and D places D at position 6. F is third to the left of D, so F at 3. E is to the right of G, leaving G at 7 and E at 5 (since D is at 6). So, positions: 1-G, 2-A, 3-F, 4-C, 5-B, 6-D, 7-E. No one sits between A and G, so answer is C (None). The other choices assume different starting positions for A but violate other conditions.

The logic is reversing the letters and then rotating one position. INFO reversed is OFNI, then moving the first letter to the end gives NOFI. Applying the same to WAKE: reverse to EKAW, rotate to get AEKW. For the options, FEAR reversed is RAEF, rotate to ERAF, then reverse again to match the pattern. Option A follows this logic. Other options do not maintain the reverse-rotate sequence consistently.

From R, three people between R and T means they are opposite each other (7 seats, so positions 1 and 5). Three people between B and A from A's right means A and B are also opposite (e.g., A at 3, B at 7). S is immediate right of B, so S at 1. U is neighbour of A and T, placing U between A (3) and T (5), so U at 4. C must be at 2 (remaining position). Second to the left of C (2) is position 6, which is U. Answer B (U). The other choices miscount positions or neighbour relations.

The logic is each letter is followed by the letter three places ahead in the alphabet (e.g., I�N�E (I+3=N, N+3=U, but U+3=X; however, the pattern seems to break). Re-examining: INE (I+3=N, N+3=U), UYR (U+3=Y, Y+3=R), QUN (Q+3=U, U+3=N), OSL (O+3=S, S+3=L). All follow except INE, which should end with X, not E. So, INE (A) is the odd one. The other choices follow the +3 pattern correctly.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The pattern involves letter shifts and number increments. WTQ: W�T (-3), T�Q (-3); 69�76 (+7), 76�83 (+7), 83�90 (+7), so next number is 97. Letters: WTQ�URO�SPM�QNK�OLI (each letter shifts -3, -4, -5, -6...). So, next term is OLI 97. Answer A. The other choices have incorrect letter shifts or number increments.

Key point: letter rearrangement within the triad. Analyzing DIGS to SDGI to DSIG, the pattern involves rotating letters: moving the last letter to the front. Applying this to WAVE: EWVA becomes WEAV by moving 'V' to the front. For the options, SPIN becomes NSIP (last letter 'N' moved to front), then SNPI (last letter 'P' moved to front), which matches the logic. Other options don't follow this rotation consistently.

This checks positional relationships in the alphabet. Each pair in the options represents letters that are a certain distance apart. For example, EK (E to K is 5 letters), JP (J to P is 5), NT (N to T is 5), SY (S to Y is 5). However, OU to TA does not maintain this 5-letter gap (O to U is 5, but T to A is not a forward 5-letter jump in the alphabet), making B the odd one out.

Ruman is 20th from the right, Daniel is 26th from the right, so the distance between them is 26 - 20 - 1 = 5 people. Since Daniel is exactly between Ruman and Om, Om's position from the right is 26 + 5 + 1 = 32nd. Given Om is 14th from the left, total people = 14 + 32 - 1 = 45. This calculation confirms option B as correct.

The task is to identify even numbers flanked by odd numbers. Scanning the series: 6 (preceded by nothing), 8 (1 before is odd, 4 after is even � doesn't qualify), 4 (3 before is odd, 5 after is odd � qualifies), 2 (7 before is odd, 7 after is odd � qualifies), 4 (7 before is odd, 7 after is odd � qualifies), 4 (7 before is odd, 3 after is odd � qualifies), 6 (5 before is odd, 7 after is odd � qualifies), 8 (7 before is odd, nothing after). Only 4, 2, 4, 4, 6 meet the criteria, totaling 4 instances, so option B is correct.

The series decreases by 18 each time: 188 - 18 = 170, 170 - 18 = 152, 152 - 18 = 134, 134 - 18 = 116, so next is 116 - 18 = 98. Option D fits this arithmetic progression.

The pattern involves dividing by 2: 1408 / 2 = 704, 704 / 2 = 176, 176 / 2 = 88, 88 / 2 = 44, but 44 / 2 = 22, which precedes 11 (22 / 2 = 11). The missing number is 22, confirming option B.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Mathematical Operations, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Key point: to identify the pattern in the series based on the English alphabetical order. The given series is FNK, HPM, JRO, LTQ, ?. Analyzing the positions: F(6), N(14), K(11); H(8), P(16), M(13); J(10), R(18), O(15); L(12), T(20), Q(17). The pattern shows each subsequent letter increases by 2: F+2=H, H+2=J, J+2=L. For the second letter: N+2=P, P+2=R, R+2=T. For the third letter: K+2=M, M+2=O, O+2=Q. Following this, the next first letter is L+2=N, second letter T+2=V, third letter Q+2=S. So, the next term is NVS, which is option A.

Key point: to identify the relationship between the numbers in the sets. The given sets are (8, 19, 10) and (13, 29, 20). We need to find the pattern. For the first set: 8 * 2 + 3 = 19, and 19 - 9 = 10. For the second set: 13 * 2 + 3 = 29, and 29 - 9 = 20. The pattern is (x, 2x+3, 2x+3-9). Applying this to the options: Option A (15, 33, 24): 15*2+3=33, 33-9=24, which fits. Other options don't follow this pattern. So, the correct answer is A.

Key point: to determine the total number of students based on the given ranks. Rekha is 18th from the top and 9th from the bottom. The total number of students is calculated as 18 (from top) + 9 (from bottom) - 1 (since Rekha is counted twice) = 26. This is because the rank from the top and bottom includes the person herself, so subtracting 1 gives the total number of students. D)26 is the answer.

Key point: to decode the blood relations based on the given symbols. The equation is O # G + N # T + L. Breaking it down: O # G means O is the wife of G. G + N means G is the father of N. N # T means N is the wife of T. T + L means T is the father of L. Combining these: O is the wife of G, who is the father of N. N is the wife of T, who is the father of L. So, O is the mother of N, and N is the mother of L. So, O is the mother of L's mother, making O the maternal grandmother of L. However, the options don't have grandmother. The correct answer is C)Mother's mother, which aligns with O being the mother of N (L's mother), making O the mother of L's mother. The main distractor is B and D, which incorrectly relate to the father's side or sister's husband.

The series follows a pattern where each number is double the previous one: 3�2=6, 6�2=12, 12�2=24, 24�2=48. Continuing this pattern, the next number should be 48�2=96. Option B fits this pattern. Options A, C, and D do not follow the doubling sequence, making them incorrect.

Jyoti's movements form a rectangle. Starting at L, she goes north 8 km, east 14 km, south 15 km, west 14 km, and north 3 km to P. Her final position is 8 km north - 15 km south + 3 km north = 4 km south from L. However, since she ends 3 km north after moving south 15 km, the net south displacement is 15-8-3=4 km south. To return, she needs to go 4 km north. Option D states this. Other options miscalculate the net displacement or direction.

We need to find even numbers that are both preceded and followed by even numbers. Examining the series: 2 (preceded by nothing), 6 (preceded by 2, followed by 9), 2 (preceded by 1, followed by 5), 5 (not even), 7 (not even), 2 (preceded by 7, followed by 5), 5 (not even), 2 (preceded by 5, followed by 2), 2 (preceded by 2, followed by 4), 4 (preceded by 2, followed by 7), 7 (not even), 9 (not even), 3 (not even), 2 (preceded by 3, followed by 5), 5 (not even), 4 (preceded by 5, followed by 1), 1 (not even), 4 (preceded by 1, followed by 9), 9 (not even), 9 (preceded by 9, followed by 1), 1 (not even), 8 (preceded by 1, followed by 9), 9 (not even). Only the number 2 (at position 8) is preceded by 2 and followed by 4, both even. Option D is correct as there's only one such instance. Other options overcount or misidentify the positions.

We need to count symbols that are between two numbers. Analyzing the series: 'f¢â�' is preceded by nothing, 'š�' is preceded by ',', '¬' is preceded by '#', '@' is preceded by '6', '#' is preceded by '2', '1' is a number, '@' is preceded by '6', '1' is a number, 'f¢â�' is preceded by ',', 'š�' is preceded by ',', '¬' is preceded by '#', '$' is preceded by '1', '3' is a number, '9' is a number, '$' is preceded by '9', '2' is a number, '4' is a number, '4' is a number, '*' is preceded by '4', 'f�?s�' is preceded by '*', '£' is preceded by 's�', '6' is a number, '6' is a number. The symbols '@' (between 6 and 1) and '*' (between 4 and f�?s�) are not between two numbers. However, '@' appears again between 6 and 1, but the preceding is a number and the following is a number only once. Similarly, '#' is between 2 and 1, but 1 is a number. Careful examination shows only two symbols fit: the first '@' is between 6 (number) and # (not a number), so it doesn't count. The correct symbols are the second '@' (preceded by 6, followed by 1) and '#' (preceded by 2, followed by 1). However, in the given series, the '#' is preceded by '2' and followed by '1', both numbers, so that counts. The '@' is between '6' and '#', but '#' is not a number, so it doesn't count. Another '@' is between '6' and '1', which are numbers, so that counts. So, there are two such symbols: '@' and '#'. Option D is correct. Other options miscount the valid symbols.

The pattern involves shifting letters in the alphabet and adding numbers. QK to TO: Q�T (+3), K�O (+4); 13�17 (+4). IC to LG: I�L (+3), C�G (+4); 24�28 (+4). Applying this to SM: S�V (+3), M�Q (+4); 35�39 (+4). So, SM 35 relates to VQ 39. Option D fits. Other options have incorrect letter shifts or number increments.

First, identify the second highest number and the lowest number. The numbers are 741, 753, 789, 761, 745. Arranged: 741 (lowest), 745, 753, 761, 789 (highest). The second highest is 761. The second digit of 761 is 6. The lowest number is 741, its third digit is 1. Adding them: 6 + 1 = 7. Option B is correct. Other options result from incorrect identification of the numbers or their digits.

Key point: pattern recognition in coding. The correct option 'wm' fits because 'meal' is consistently coded as 'wm' in both given examples. The other choices 'vs' and 'mo' correspond to 'visit' and 'cat' or 'mango', which are not present in the target phrase. 'or' is linked to 'rain', which is also absent. So, 'wm' is the logical choice for 'meal'.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Direction Sense, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Algebra, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

From the statements: A is third to the left of E, so positions: A _ _ E. E is second to the left of F: E _ F. D is immediate right of E: E D F. B is immediate left of C. Combining: A _ _ E D F, and B C. Since A is third to the left of E, the arrangement could be A B C E D F. So, C and F have two people (E and D) between them. The correct answer is 'Two'.

Statements: Some moons are stars (M � S), Some stars are planets (S � P). Conclusions: I. All stars are moons (incorrect, as 'some' does not imply 'all'). II. Some moons are planets (possibly true, but not necessarily, since the overlap between moons and stars, and stars and planets, doesn't guarantee moons and planets overlap). So, neither conclusion follows.

This checks recent awards. Vijay Kelkar, a renowned economist, received the Punyabhushan Puraskar in June 2025 for his contributions to economics. Other options are incorrect: P. Chidambaram is a politician, Arvind Subramanian is a former CEA, and C. Rangarajan is a former RBI Governor. The correct answer is 'Vijay Kelkar'.

The task is to identify India's unemployment rate in April 2025 as per the PLFS data. 5 is the answer.1% (Option C). The PLFS is a key survey for labour market statistics in India. For revision, remember that unemployment rates are reported monthly and can fluctuate. Key point: understanding the primary sources of employment data. Options A, B, and D are plausible but incorrect figures, highlighting the need to recall specific recent data points for such questions.

The Annual Calendar initiative under Khelo India was launched by Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya in May 2025 (Option B). Khelo India aims to promote sports development. This checks recent government initiatives and the ministers associated with them. Anurag Thakur (A) is linked to sports but was not the launcher here. Udhayanidhi Stalin (C) and Kiren Rijiju (D) are not associated with this specific launch, making B the clear choice.

The RBI granted RRBs an additional five years (Option A) to amortise pension revision expenditures from FY 2025. This relates to financial regulations and banking operations. Key point: understanding how regulatory changes impact financial institutions. Options B, C, and D are incorrect durations, emphasizing the importance of precise recall of such regulatory updates for exam success.

Assam (Option B) is concerned about the invasive species Ruellia Elegans in 2025. Invasive species are a significant environmental issue, often highlighted in geography. The question requires knowledge of current environmental challenges in specific states. Kerala (A), Chhattisgarh (C), and Bihar (D) are not the affected states in this context, so option B is correct.

Mehak Sharma's total lift of 247 kg (Option C) set a national record at the 38th National Games. The question focuses on recent sports achievements. For revision, note specific records and the athletes associated with them. Options A, B, and D are incorrect weights, demonstrating the need for accurate recall of sports statistics for such MCQs.

From 13 May 2025, RBI mandated digital lending apps to be reported to a centralised portal (Option A). This relates to regulatory compliance in banking. Key point: understanding digital lending guidelines. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they misrepresent the regulatory requirement, highlighting the importance of precise knowledge of recent banking regulations.

Option A is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on State Governance, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This checks government ministries and their functions. the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, which is responsible for data collection and progress monitoring, including the SDGs is the answer. The Ministry of Environment focuses on ecological issues, NITI Aayog on policy planning, and the Ministry of Finance on economic matters. Recognizing the specific roles of each ministry helps eliminate incorrect options.

The question concerns the consolidation of labour laws into four codes. The correct date is 21 November 2025. To solve this, recall that labour law reforms have been a significant government initiative. The other choices include dates close to the end of the year or early next year, which might be confused with other policy implementation timelines. Understanding the context of recent economic reforms helps pinpoint the accurate date.

The task is to identify who flagged off India's first exported locomotive to Guinea. Narendra Modi, the Prime Minister is the answer. Such events are typically inaugurated by high-ranking officials. The other choices include ministers like Ashwini Vaishnaw (Railways) and Piyush Goyal (former Railways Minister), but the Prime Minister's involvement in significant national events is a key detail to remember.

Option D is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Technology, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This question focuses on a 2025 athletic record in the women's 400m at the Paris Diamond League. Marileidy Paulino is the answer. To differentiate, Allyson Felix is a veteran athlete but less active in recent record-breaking, Salwa Eid Naser has faced eligibility issues, and Sydney McLaughlin specializes in hurdles. Staying updated with the latest sports news and athlete specializations helps identify the correct answer.

Key point: identifying recent award winners. B, Armand Duplantis, as he won the 2025 Laureus World Sportsman of the Year is the answer. Usain Bolt (A) retired earlier, Max Verstappen (C) is a Formula 1 driver but not the 2025 laureate, and Cristiano Ronaldo (D) is a footballer not associated with this specific award. For revision, focus on recent sports achievements for such questions.

This question is about the DR Congo-Rwanda agreement timeline. A, Deployment of peacekeepers, as this event was scheduled for 27 June 2025 is the answer. Options B and C relate to earlier stages (resolution and signing), while D (Initial talks) would have occurred much earlier. Understanding the sequence of international agreements is crucial here.

The growth in start-ups directly relates to economic growth and employment. SDG 8 (C) focuses on promoting sustained, inclusive economic growth, which aligns with entrepreneurship. SDG 1 (A) is about poverty eradication, SDG 4 (B) on education, and SDG 10 (D) on reducing inequalities. Students must connect economic indicators to the appropriate SDG.

Key point: identifying state-specific women's safety initiatives. Uttar Pradesh (C) showcased Mission Shakti, a known program for women's safety. West Bengal (A), Karnataka (B), and Haryana (D) have their own initiatives but were not highlighted in this specific conference. Familiarity with state government schemes is essential for such questions.

The Dardanelles Strait is in Turkey (D), which closed it due to forest fires in �anakkale. Bulgaria (A) and Italy (B) are not adjacent to this strait, and Greece (C) does not control it. For revision, recall geographical locations and recent disasters to eliminate incorrect options.

The Code on Social Security, 2020 (B) merged multiple acts, including those for gig workers and women. The Health and Working Conditions Code (A) and Industrial Relations Code (D) are separate labour codes, while the Code on Wages (C) deals with wage structures. Understanding the scope of each labour code is vital for correct identification.

Option C is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Government Schemes and Initiatives, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

Balancing the reaction: 3MnO2 + 4Al � 3Mn + 2Al2O3. For Mn: 3 on both sides. For O: 6 on the left (from MnO2) and 6 in Al2O3 (2*3). For Al: 4 on the left and 4 on the right (2*2). So, x = 4 and y = 2. Option D is correct. Other options fail to balance the atoms correctly.

The answer depends on a specific legislative action in 2025. The National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Bill relates to sports governance, which falls under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. Mansukh Mandaviya, as the Union Minister for this portfolio in 2025, introduced the bill. Options A (Rajnath Singh, Defence) and B (Anurag Thakur, I&B) are unrelated to sports. Option C (Kiren Rijiju) previously held the sports ministry but was not in the role in 2025, making D the correct choice.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Seating Arrangement, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.