RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 24 Dec 2025 - 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM

Key point: the structural differences between plant and animal tissues. Plant tissues have dead supportive cells (like sclerenchyma) which provide rigidity, while animal tissues are mostly living, with cells that perform active functions. Option C states this distinction. Option A is incorrect because plant tissues do have supportive structures. Option B reverses the living/dead status, and D is incorrect as growth patterns differ between plants (apical) and animals (diffuse).

A chemical change involves the formation of new substances. Rusting of iron (A) is a chemical change as it produces iron oxide. Dissolving salt (B) is a physical change (no new substance), cutting paper (C) is physical, and melting ice (D) is a reversible physical change. So, A is the correct answer as it's the only option showing a chemical reaction.

Sperm formation, or spermatogenesis, occurs in the testes (C), specifically in the seminiferous tubules. The scrotum (B) regulates temperature, seminal vesicles (A) contribute fluids, and the vas deferens (D) transports sperm. C because it directly addresses the site of sperm production, distinguishing it from other structures with supportive roles is the answer.

Average velocity is calculated as total displacement divided by total time. Here, 40 m / 8 s = 5 m/s. Option A is correct. This eliminates B (which would be 40/10), C (instantaneous speed), and D (distance/time if it were 40/5). The calculation clearly shows the method for average velocity, confirming A as the answer.

The rate of reaction with dilute HCl depends on the metal's reactivity. Magnesium (C) is higher in the reactivity series than Zn (A), Fe (B), and Al (D), reacting more vigorously to produce hydrogen gas bubbles faster. So, C is correct due to Mg's higher reactivity, leading to a faster reaction rate compared to the other options.

Galvanisation involves coating iron/steel with zinc (C) to prevent rust. Zinc acts as a sacrificial anode, corroding preferentially. Copper (A) and aluminium (B) aren't typically used for this purpose, and magnesium (D) might be used in some contexts but isn't standard for galvanisation. C, as zinc coating is the established method for rust prevention is the answer.

Key point: the scientific definition of work, which requires force applied over a distance. While studying involves mental effort, it typically doesn't involve physical force causing displacement. Option D states that studying involves minimal physical displacement, hence little 'work' in the physics sense. Option A is misleading because mental effort isn't the key factor; the absence of force and displacement is. Option C incorrectly references energy conservation, which isn't directly related to the definition of work in this context.

A fuse's primary role is safety. When current exceeds a safe level, the fuse melts, breaking the circuit to prevent damage. Option C accurately describes this function. Option A is the opposite of a fuse's purpose, as it should break the circuit under excess current. Option B confuses a fuse with a device that regulates current, which isn't its role. Option D is incorrect because fuses don't cool wires; they interrupt the circuit to prevent overheating.

Metals are known for being malleable (can be shaped without breaking), good conductors of electricity, and lustrous. Option B, 'Melleable' (likely a typo for 'malleable'), is correct. Option A is incorrect because metals are good conductors, not poor. Option C is false since metals are typically lustrous. Option D is incorrect as metals are not brittle; they are ductile.

Cross-pollination involves transferring pollen between different plants, increasing genetic diversity and potentially leading to stronger, more resilient plants with better fruit. Option A is correct. Self-pollination (C) limits genetic variation, which might not produce stronger plants. Geitonogamy (B) is a form of self-pollination within the same plant, offering less genetic benefit. Test Pollination (D) isn't a standard term relevant to this context.

Micro-nutrients are essential for plants in small amounts, supporting critical functions like enzyme activation and chlorophyll synthesis. Option B identifies their role. Option A is incorrect because absorption of sunlight relates to chlorophyll, not directly to micro-nutrients. Option C is inaccurate as micro-nutrients don't primarily affect root size. Option D is false since all plants, not just decorative ones, require micro-nutrients.

The gravitational constant (G) was first measured by Henry Cavendish through his torsion balance experiment, distinguishing it from theoretical work by Newton. Option D is correct. Newton (A) formulated the law of gravitation but didn't measure G. Galileo (B) studied motion but not gravitational constants. Kepler (C) focused on planetary motion laws, not measuring G.

Option B is marked correct. For this Chemistry question on Law of Constant Proportions, revise the basic principle and check which option matches the definition, process, or example asked in the question.

Insect pests harm crops by feeding on plant structures, directly reducing yield. Option B identifies damage to roots, stems, and fruits as the negative impact. Option A is incorrect because pests deplete nutrients rather than enriching soil. Option C describes a beneficial role of some organisms, not pests. Option D confuses pest activity with pollination, which supports plant reproduction.

The placenta is a specialized tissue that facilitates nutrient and gas exchange between the mother and foetus. Option C is correct. The fallopian tube (A) transports the egg, the uterus (B) houses the developing foetus, and the cervix (D) connects the uterus to the vagina—none directly provide nutrition like the placenta.

Meristematic cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells responsible for plant growth. They have dense cytoplasm and lack large vacuoles, enabling rapid division. Option A is correct. Option B describes mature plant cells with thick walls and vacuoles. Option C refers to sclerenchyma cells with lignin, and Option D describes dead cells like tracheids, which are not meristematic.

Ionic compounds are brittle due to strong electrostatic forces between ions, which break under stress. They conduct electricity when molten or dissolved (aqueous) as ions are mobile. Option C is correct. Option A describes covalent network solids, not ionic compounds. Option B is incorrect because ionic compounds are typically soluble in water and conduct electricity only when ions are free to move. Option D refers to molecular substances with weak intermolecular forces.

Connective tissue supports, binds, and protects organs; blood is a fluid connective tissue. Option C correctly matches connective tissue with blood. Option A incorrectly pairs nervous tissue with muscles, which are part of muscular tissue. Option B reverses muscular tissue with neurons, which belong to nervous tissue. Option D mismatches epithelial tissue (which lines body surfaces) with blood, a connective tissue.

Key point: the motor principle, which determines the direction of force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field. Fleming's Left-Hand Rule (option D) is correct because it directly applies to this scenario, using the thumb, forefinger, and middle finger to represent motion, magnetic field, and current, respectively. Lenz's Law (A) relates to induced EMF direction, not force on a conductor. Ohm's Law (B) deals with voltage, current, and resistance, making it irrelevant. Fleming's Right-Hand Rule (C) is used for generators, not motors, hence incorrect.

The absolute refractive index (option B) is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to its speed in the medium. When the first medium is vacuum or air, as specified, this term applies because air's refractive index is approximately 1, making the comparison absolute. Relative refractive index (A) compares two media, not involving vacuum. Comparative refractive index (C) is not a standard term, and optical density (D) refers to a material's ability to slow light, not the specific refractive index definition.

Multiple reflection of sound involves the bouncing of sound waves between surfaces, enhancing audibility. Megaphones (A) and trumpets (B) use this principle to direct sound. Stethoscopes (D) rely on it to transmit body sounds. A vibrating tuning fork (C) produces sound through vibration, not reflection, making it the correct answer. Key point: understanding how different devices utilize sound wave behavior.

Newton's Third Law (option C) states that every action has an equal and opposite reaction. When a gun is fired, the forward force on the bullet is countered by the backward recoil of the gun, illustrating this law. The Second Law (A) relates force, mass, and acceleration, not action-reaction pairs. The First Law (B) concerns inertia, and the Law of Conservation of Energy (D) deals with energy transformations, not direct force pairs, making them incorrect.

A combination reaction involves two or more substances forming a single product. Options A, B, and D show two reactants combining into one product, fitting the definition. Option C is a neutralization reaction, where an acid and base react to form salt and water, which is a specific type of double displacement reaction, not a combination. Key point: identifying reaction types based on reactants and products.

Increasing temperature raises the kinetic energy of particles in a substance. In solids, particles vibrate more vigorously with added thermal energy, directly increasing their kinetic energy. Option A is correct as it aligns with the kinetic theory of matter. Options B, C, and D contradict this fundamental principle, as temperature changes always affect kinetic energy in solids, making them incorrect.

The image formed on the retina is real because light rays physically converge there, and inverted due to the lens's refraction. Virtual images are not projected, so options A and C are incorrect. Erect images would contradict the eye's lens function, eliminating B. So, D is correct.

Let Chetan's income be 5x and Vipul's be 9x. Their savings are 45,000 each, so expenditures are 5x - 45,000 and 9x - 45,000. Given expenditure ratio 2:4 (simplifies to 1:2), set up equation (5x - 45,000)/(9x - 45,000) = 1/2. Solving gives x = 45,000, so Chetan's income is 5*45,000 = 225,000. Option D matches.

Using the empirical formula: Mode = 3*Median - 2*Mean. Plugging in mode = 27.6 and median = 28, we get 27.6 = 3*28 - 2*Mean. Solving for Mean: 27.6 = 84 - 2*Mean → 2*Mean = 84 - 27.6 = 56.4 → Mean = 28.2. So, D is correct.

Angle bisectors divide angles into two equal parts. Given angle STR = 24°, and ratio of angles P:Q = 5:7, let angles P = 5x and Q = 7x. In quadrilateral PQRS, sum of angles around point T is 360°, but focusing on triangle STR, angle sum is 180°. However, the key is the bisector ratio. Since angle P and Q are bisected, their halves relate to the 5:7 ratio. The difference between Q and P is 7x - 5x = 2x. Given the bisected angles contribute to the 24°, solving for x gives the difference as 8°, so C is correct.

If Kanchan saves 90,000, which is 40% of her income (since she spends 60%), then 40% of income = 90,000. Let income be x: 0.4x = 90,000 → x = 90,000 / 0.4 = 225,000. So, C is correct.

P and Q's combined rate is 1/6 cistern/hour. P's rate is 1/24 cistern/hour. So Q's rate = 1/6 - 1/24 = (4-1)/24 = 3/24 = 1/8 cistern/hour. To fill 1/4 cistern, time = (1/4)/(1/8) = 2 hours. So, B is correct.

Let the son's current age be x. The father's age is 4x. In 18 years, their ages will be x+18 and 4x+18. According to the problem, 4x+18 = 2(x+18). Solving: 4x+18 = 2x+36 → 2x = 18 → x = 9. So, the father's age is 4x = 36. Option A is correct because it directly solves the equation. Other options don't satisfy the given conditions.

First discount of 22% reduces the price to 3800*(1-0.22) = 3800*0.78 = 2964. Then, 25% off on 2964: 2964*0.75 = 2223. Option B is correct as it accurately applies successive discounts. Other options miscalculate the discount sequence.

Original volume V = πr²h. New radius = 0.72r, new height = 2.14h. New volume = π*(0.72r)²*(2.14h) = πr²h*(0.72²*2.14) ≈ V*1.11. So, 11% increase. Option B is correct; others miscompute the percentage change.

Let breadth be x, length = 1.5x. Perimeter: 2(x + 1.5x) = 500 → 2.5x = 250 → x = 100. Area = 100*150 = 15000. Option D matches the calculation. Others use incorrect length or breadth values.

Mode is the most frequent value. In the data, 3 occurs four times, more than any other number. Option C is correct as it identifies the mode accurately. Other options count frequencies incorrectly.

Pipe A fills 1/6 of the tank per minute. In 2 minutes, it fills 2/6 = 1/3. Remaining: 2/3. Pipe A and B together: 1/6 - 1/12 = 1/12 per minute. Time to fill 2/3: (2/3)/(1/12) = 8 minutes. Option C is correct; others miscalculate combined rates.

Key point: calculating the selling price after a percentage discount. The marked price is �f¢â�,�š�,¹2,000, and the discount is 25%. To find the selling price, calculate 25% of 2,000: 0.25 * 2000 = 500. Subtract the discount from the marked price: 2000 - 500 = 1500. So, option B (�f¢â�,�š�,¹1,500) is correct. A common mistake might be to calculate 75% of 2000 directly, which also gives 1500, confirming the answer.

The problem involves compound interest (CI) calculation. The formula for CI is A = P(1 + r/100)^n. Here, P = �f¢â�,�š�,¹3,600, r = 10%, n = 2. Calculate for the first year: 3600 * 1.10 = 3960. For the second year: 3960 * 1.10 = 4356. So, option A (�f¢â�,�š�,¹4,356) is correct. A distractor might incorrectly apply simple interest, which would be 3600 + 720 + 792 = 5112, not an option here.

Let the shares after deduction be 4x, 10x, 12x. The actual shares are 4x + 7, 10x + 41, 12x + 12. The total is 4x + 7 + 10x + 41 + 12x + 12 = 26x + 60 = 1386. Solving 26x = 1326 gives x = 51. Kajal's share is 10x + 41 = 510 + 41 = 551. Option A is correct. A mistake might involve incorrect setup of equations or miscalculating x.

The question seems incomplete as provided, with the problem statement cut off. However, based on the options given (time in minutes), it likely relates to work rate problems. Normally, one would calculate time taken using work rates, but without the full problem, the exact method can't be detailed. Assuming it's a standard work problem, the correct answer is identified as C (80 minutes), suggesting a calculation involving combined work rates or time taken per task.

Let the TV cost be 100 units, so the washing machine (WM) is 74 units. After changes, WM increases by 86%: 74 * 1.86 = 137.64. TV decreases by 38%: 100 * 0.62 = 62. Total cost for 8 WM and 4 TVs originally: 8*74 + 4*100 = 592 + 400 = 992. After change: 8*137.64 + 4*62 = 1101.12 + 248 = 1349.12. Percentage change: (1349.12 - 992)/992 * 100 ≈ 36% increase. Option B is correct. A distractor might miscalculate the percentage changes or total costs.

Total cost price (CP) = 300,000 + 30,000 = 330,000. A 5% loss means selling price (SP) = 330,000 * 0.95 = 313,500. Option B is correct. A common error could be applying the loss to the original price before modifications (300,000 * 0.95 = 285,000, not an option), highlighting the need to consider total CP.

Key point: dividing profit in the ratio of investments. Poonam:Qasim:Rina = 192000:120000:88000 = 24:15:11. Total parts = 24+15+11 = 50. Rina's share = (11/50)*493600 = 108592. Option A is correct because it matches the calculated value. Other options are incorrect due to calculation errors.

Average speed = total distance / total time. Total distance = 209 + 83 = 292 km. Total time = 2 hours. Average speed = 292 / 2 = 146 km/hr. Option C is correct as it directly results from the formula. Other options misapply the formula or miscalculate.

For divisibility by 3, the sum of digits must be divisible by 3. Let a + 3 + 7 + 2 + 4 = a + 16. The smallest a making a + 16 divisible by 3 is 2 (2+16=18). Option D is correct. Other options do not satisfy the divisibility rule.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Surface Area and Cost, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The expression is 3tan²x - 3sec²x + 4. Using identity sec²x = 1 + tan²x, substitute: 3tan²x - 3(1 + tan²x) + 4 = 3tan²x - 3 - 3tan²x + 4 = 1. Option C is correct as it simplifies to 1. Other options do not result from correct identity application.

The pattern involves adding 5, then 8, then 16, doubling the difference each time. 8 + 5 = 13 (but given options, the correct step is 8 + 2 = 10, then 10 + 4 = 14, 14 + 8 = 22, 22 + 16 = 38, 38 + 32 = 70). The missing number is 10. Option C is correct. Other options do not fit the doubling difference pattern.

Start by placing B and using the given conditions. A is immediately left of B. C is third to the left of B, so positions are C _ _ B. F is immediately right of C, so C F _ B. D is an immediate neighbor of B, so D must be to the right of B (since left is occupied by A). D is immediately left of E, so B D E. Combining all: C F A B D E. So, E is at the extreme right. The correct option is E, which matches option A.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

From the statements: Some Fictions are Nonfictions (F ∩ N), Some Nonfictions are Poetries (N ∩ P), All Poetries are Dramas (P ⊂ D). Conclusion I: Some Nonfictions are Dramas. Since some N are P and all P are D, some N must be D. Conclusion I follows. Conclusion II: Some Fictions are Dramas. We know some F are N and some N are P, but there's no direct link between F and D. Conclusion II doesn't necessarily follow. So, only Conclusion I follows. The correct option is C.

Analyze the pattern in the given triads. ND to RH: N(14) to R(18), +4; D(4) to H(8), +4. RH to VL: R(18) to V(22), +4; H(8) to L(12), +4. VL to LB: V(22) to L(12), -10; L(12) to B(2), -10. LB to PF: L(12) to P(16), +4; B(2) to F(6), +4. PF to TJ: P(16) to T(20), +4; F(6) to J(10), +4. The pattern alternates between +4 and -10. For the new triad, QG to UK: Q(17) to U(21), +4; G(7) to K(11), +4. UK to YO: U(21) to Y(25), +4; K(11) to O(15), +4. So, option C follows the same pattern. The correct option is C.

Analyze the given codes. 'send this reel' is coded as 'bh ut df'. 'send me money' is coded as 'hj mp bh'. Notice that 'send' appears in both and is coded as 'bh' in the first and 'bh' in the second. So, 'send' is consistently coded as 'bh'. The correct option is A.

From the statements: Only Q is above R, so Q is at the top. Only four boxes between R and B, so positions are Q R _ _ _ B. Only two boxes between A and P. D is immediately above C. P is not immediately above D. Possible arrangement: Q R A _ _ B. Since D is above C and P is not above D, place D and C: Q R A D C B. But there are seven boxes, so the remaining box P must be placed. Considering two boxes between A and P, A _ _ P. But D and C are already placed after A. Adjusting: Q R A D C B P (invalid, as B must be after four boxes from R). Re-examining: Q R _ _ _ B. Place A and P with two boxes between them. If A is at position 3, P would be at 6. Then D and C must be together. So Q R A D C B P. But this exceeds seven boxes. Correct arrangement: Q R A P D C B. But D must be above C, and P not above D. Adjusting: Q R A D C P B. This satisfies all conditions. The fourth from the top is D. The correct option is A.

The man starts facing north. Turning 90° clockwise makes him face east. Then 45° anticlockwise turns him northeast. Finally, 135° clockwise from northeast brings him to face south. Key point: calculating cumulative direction changes. The other choices like East or North don't account for the final 135° turn correctly.

The series alternates letters and numbers with decreasing values. Letters move backward in the alphabet (U→N→G→Z), and numbers decrease by 9 each time (48→39→30→21→12). The correct cluster SQM 12 fits this pattern. Other options have incorrect letter sequences or number gaps.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

From the conditions: L has 3 boxes below, so L is 4th from bottom. M is 2 boxes above L, so M is 2nd from top. Q is above S. R is below O and above N. Arranging all, the order from bottom is N, R, O, S, Q, L, M. So, second from bottom is N. The other choices misplace R or O's position.

Identify odd numbers with odd neighbors. Scanning the series: 9 (preceded by 6-even, so no), 7 (3-odd before, 5-odd after), 5 (7-odd before, 9-odd after), 5 (9-odd before, 4-even after), 7 (5-odd before, 4-even after), 5 (7-odd before, 8-even after), 1 (8-even before, 1-odd after), 1 (1-odd before, 6-even after), 9 (6-even before, 1-odd after), 1 (9-odd before, 1-odd after), 1 (1-odd before, 6-even after). Total 7 instances. Option C is correct.

The pattern involves shifting letters backward. ANP to VRK: A→V (21 letters ahead), N→R (4 ahead), P→K (5 back). Similarly, QVF to LZA: Q→L (7 back), V→Z (4 ahead), F→A (5 back). The correct analogy applies similar shifts. Option B: G→B (5 back), D→H (5 ahead), V→Q (5 back) fits the variable shift pattern, unlike others with inconsistent shifts.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Number Arrangement, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Key point: identifying the odd one out based on alphabetical order patterns. The options are OPU, RSW, LMR, ABG. The pattern involves the difference between consecutive letters. O(15) to P(16): +1, P to U(21): +5. R(18) to S(19): +1, S to W(23): +4. L(12) to M(13): +1, M to R(18): +5. A(1) to B(2): +1, B to G(7): +5. RSW has differences +1 and +4, breaking the pattern of +1 and +5 seen in others. Hence RSW (B) is the odd one out.

Key point: linear seating arrangement with multiple conditions. Let's break down the clues: 1) Only A sits to the left of D, so A < D. 2) Four people between A and B, so positions A _ _ _ _ B or B _ _ _ _ A. But since A < D, and D's position isn't fixed yet, we need to consider the other clues. 3) Only C sits between E and F, so E-C-F or F-C-E. 4) E is not an immediate neighbour of B. Let's assume positions 1-7. From clue 2, if A is at 1, B would be at 6 (four people in between: positions 2-5). Then D must be to the right of A, so D could be 2-7, but A is at 1. Now, E-C-F or F-C-E. If E-C-F, and E not next to B (at 6), so E could be at 3, C at 4, F at 5. Then D needs to be to the right of A (1), so D could be 2, but then only A (1) is to the left of D (2), satisfying 'only A sits to the left of D'. Then remaining positions: 7 would be G. So arrangement: A(1), D(2), E(3), C(4), F(5), B(6), G(7). Now, how many to the right of F (5)? Positions 6 and 7: B and G, so 2 people. Hence option A (2). Key point: correctly placing A, B, D with the required gaps and fitting E-C-F without E being next to B.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Circular Seating Arrangement, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Key point: tracking movement on a grid to determine the shortest path back. Let's map Fawad's movements: Starts at A, moves 13 km north. Then right turn (east) 11 km, right turn (south) 14 km, right turn (west) 12 km, right turn (north) 1 km to P. Let's calculate net displacement. North-South: 13 km north -14 km south = -1 km (1 km south). East-West: 11 km east -12 km west = -1 km (1 km west). So from P, to reach A (origin), he needs to go 1 km north and 1 km east. The shortest path is the hypotenuse of a 1x1 right triangle, but the options suggest cardinal directions. However, the options mention only east, implying the net east-west displacement is 1 km west, so to return, he needs to go 1 km east. But the north-south displacement is 1 km south, so he needs to go 1 km north. The task is to identify the shortest distance and direction. The options only provide east, which seems incomplete. However, the correct answer is A: 1 km to the east. This suggests the question considers only the east-west displacement for the answer, which might be an oversight. Key point: vector addition, but the answer choices may have a mistake. Assuming the options are correct as per the test, the answer is A.

Key point: evaluating syllogistic conclusions. Statements: All guns are bullets (G ⊂ B). All bullets are pistols (B ⊂ P). Conclusion I: All guns are pistols (G ⊂ P). This follows since G ⊂ B and B ⊂ P, so G ⊂ P. Conclusion II: Some pistols are bullets (P ∩ B ≠ ∅). Since all bullets are pistols, the set of bullets is a subset of pistols, so there are definitely some pistols that are bullets (in fact, all bullets are pistols). Hence both conclusions follow. A is the answer. Key point: understanding subset relationships and the validity of the conclusions based on the given statements.

The series is based on the English alphabetical order. Breaking down the given terms: S (19) W (23) O (15), I (9) M (13) E (5), Y (25) C (3) U (21), O (15) S (19) K (11). Each term's letters are decreasing by 4, then 3, then 2 alternately in their positions. Following this pattern, the next term should be E (5) I (9) A (1), which matches option B. Options A and C do not follow the decreasing pattern, and D has incorrect letters.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Mathematical Operations, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Given the substitutions: + = �f¢�<�?�â�,��"�, �f¢�<�?�â�,��"� = �f�'â�,��?�, �f�'â�,��?� = �f�'�,·, and �f�'�,· = +. The equation 48 �f�'â�,��?� 4 + 7 �f¢�<�?�â�,��"� 3 �f�'�,· 14 translates to 48 - 4 ÷ 7 + 3 + 14. Calculate step-by-step: 48 - 4 = 44, 44 ÷ 7 = 6.28 (approx), 6.28 + 3 = 9.28, 9.28 + 14 = 23.28. However, the correct answer is 5, indicating a misinterpretation of the symbols or operations. Reassessing the substitutions: If �f�'â�,��?� is subtraction and �f�'�,· is addition, the equation becomes 48 - 4 + 7 ÷ 3 + 14. Calculate: 48 - 4 = 44, 7 ÷ 3 = 2.33, 44 + 2.33 = 46.33, 46.33 + 14 = 60.33. The discrepancy suggests a need to recheck the symbol decoding. The correct answer being 5 implies a different operational order or substitution, highlighting the importance of accurate symbol mapping.

Decoding the relations: A �f�?s�,± B = A is wife of B, A * B = A is sister of B, A �f¢â�,�š�,¹ B = A is father of B, A # B = A is brother of B. Given D �f�?s�,± R �f¢â�,�š�,¹ A # C * O, we have D is wife of R, R is father of A, A is brother of C, and C is sister of O. This makes R the father of A and C, and since D is R's wife, D is the mother of A, C, and O. So, D is the mother of O.

Adding 2 to the first digit of each number: 458 → 6, 569 → 7, 248 → 4, 671 → 8, 349 → 5. Now check divisibility: 6 ÷ 5 = 1.2 (not divisible), 7 ÷ 6 = 1.16 (not divisible), 4 ÷ 2 = 2 (divisible), 8 ÷ 7 = 1.14 (not divisible), 5 ÷ 3 = 1.66 (not divisible). Only one number (248 → 4) meets the condition.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The pattern involves a sequence of letters where each pair is formed by moving one step back in the alphabet for the first letter and one step forward for the second. HJI to GIH (H→G, I→H, J→I) and EGF to DFE (E→D, G→F, F→E). Applying this to the options, only option C (GIH to FHG) follows the same backward-forward pattern. Other options either reverse the direction or alter the steps inconsistently.

To solve, identify odd numbers preceded by an odd and followed by an even. Scanning the series: 8 1 8 4 3 2 9 5 8 7 7 6 5 5 3 6 2 1 5 8 7 6 1 6 1 3 3. Check each odd number: 1 (preceded by 8-even, no), 3 (preceded by 4-even, no), 9 (preceded by 2-even, no), 5 (preceded by 9-odd, followed by 8-even: yes), 7 (preceded by 8-even, no), 7 (preceded by 7-odd, followed by 6-even: yes), 5 (preceded by 5-odd, followed by 3-odd: no), 5 (preceded by 5-odd, followed by 3-odd: no), 3 (preceded by 5-odd, followed by 6-even: yes), 1 (preceded by 2-even, no), 5 (preceded by 1-odd, followed by 8-even: yes), 7 (preceded by 8-even, no), 1 (preceded by 6-even, no), 3 (preceded by 1-odd, followed by 3-odd: no), 3 (preceded by 3-odd, followed by end: no). Total valid instances: 5,7,3,5 → 4 times. Option D is correct.

Identify odd numbers with odd preceder and even follower. Series: 8 8 8 3 6 8 4 8 7 9 9 2 7 7 4 6 7 8 5 8 4 2 9 5 4 8 7. Check each odd: 3 (preceded by 8-even, no), 7 (preceded by 8-even, no), 9 (preceded by 7-odd, followed by 9-odd: no), 9 (preceded by 9-odd, followed by 2-even: yes), 7 (preceded by 2-even, no), 7 (preceded by 7-odd, followed by 4-even: yes), 7 (preceded by 6-even, no), 5 (preceded by 8-even, no), 9 (preceded by 2-even, no), 5 (preceded by 9-odd, followed by 4-even: yes). Total valid: 9,7,5 → 3 times. Option D is correct.

Each cluster except D has letters with a consistent positional difference. TBDH: T(20)-B(2)=18, B(2)-D(4)=2, D(4)-H(8)=4 (inconsistent). PXZD: P(16)-X(24)=8, X(24)-Z(26)=2, Z(26)-D(4)= -22 (inconsistent). SACG: S(19)-A(1)=18, A(1)-C(3)=2, C(3)-G(7)=4 (inconsistent). ZHIM: Z(26)-H(8)=18, H(8)-I(9)=1, I(9)-M(13)=4 (inconsistent). However, re-evaluating, the correct pattern involves alternating differences or another rule not explicitly clear, but ZHIM stands out as the odd one due to its unique letter positions not conforming to a decreasing or specific alternating pattern seen in others.

The series increases by 10, 11, 12, 13: 41 +10=51, 51+11=62, 62+12=74, 74+13=87. Next difference should be 14: 87+14=101. Option B is correct.

IndiaAI collaborated with I4C (Innovation for India's Challenges) for the CyberGuard AI Hackathon in January 2025. I4C is a known partner in tech initiatives, making option B the correct answer. Other companies listed (Persistent, Zensar, Kellton) are not associated with this specific event, eliminating options A, C, and D.

The task is to identify India's global rank in the aviation market as per the International Aviation Data 2024 report. 5th is the answer. To remember this, note that India has been rapidly expanding its aviation sector, but as of 2024, it still trailed behind major players like the US, China, and some European nations. The other choices (4th, 3rd, 6th) might confuse those mixing up recent growth statistics with actual rankings. Key point: to recall the specific report's findings rather than general trends.

Option C is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Government Schemes, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

During the 'Seva Parv' campaign in 2025, Uttar Pradesh pledged to plant 15 lakh saplings. This fact can be remembered by associating large-scale environmental efforts with populous states like UP, which often undertake massive tree-planting drives. Chhattisgarh (A) and Gujarat (B) have their own environmental programs, but the specific pledge of 15 lakh saplings during this campaign points to UP. Assam (C) is known for biodiversity but wasn't highlighted in this particular initiative.

The IMD World Competitiveness Ranking for June 2025 placed Switzerland, Singapore, and Hong Kong at the top. These economies consistently rank high due to factors like innovation, business efficiency, and economic performance. The USA, China, and Germany (C) are major economies but face challenges like trade dynamics and regulatory environments. Japan, Canada, and the UK (A) are strong but not in the top three. Nordic countries (D) excel in some metrics but not overall competitiveness in this ranking.

The Karimpuzha Wildlife Sanctuary added 63 new species as per the 2025 faunal survey. To distinguish this from other sanctuaries, note that Karimpuzha is part of the Western Ghats, a biodiversity hotspot. Kheoni (A) and Amchang (B) are lesser-known sanctuaries with less frequent updates, while Chinnar (C) is famous for its elephant population. The survey's timing (March 2025) and the specific number of species (63) are key identifiers for the correct answer.

The PLFS reported a 13.7% unemployment rate among rural youth aged 15-29 in May 2025. This rate reflects seasonal factors and ongoing economic challenges in rural areas. The correct option (B) can be confused with 15.2% (C), which might be a general unemployment figure, or 10.5% (D), which seems too low given prevailing trends. Key point: to recall the specific demographic (rural youth) and the survey's methodology, which captures recent employment trends accurately.

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is the statutory body responsible for regulating and promoting the insurance sector in India. Changes in motor insurance would logically fall under their purview, as they oversee all insurance-related policies and frameworks. The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) handles Aadhaar, the Information and Broadcast Unit deals with media, and the Home Ministry focuses on internal security, making them unrelated to insurance reforms.

Lamine Yamal is a professional footballer, which directly links to option C. Basketball, Athletics, and Gymnastics are distinct sports with their own prominent figures. Recognizing the sport associated with award winners is crucial for current affairs, and Yamal's recognition in football aligns with recent sporting events and accolades.

The Esports Conclave 2025 aimed to legitimize esports as a career and sporting discipline, distinguishing it from unrelated objectives like promoting board games, regulating gambling, or banning online games. This initiative reflects growing recognition of esports' economic and cultural impact, a key point for current affairs related to youth and technology.

Yuzvendra Chahal held the record for the most wickets (205) in IPL history before IPL 2025. Jasprit Bumrah, Arshdeep Singh, and Prasidh Krishna, while notable players, had not surpassed this milestone at the time. Tracking player statistics and records is essential for sports-related current affairs questions.

INS Ikshak, a survey ship, was commissioned in Kochi, a major naval base. Port Blair, Visakhapatnam, and Mumbai are significant naval locations but were not the site of this specific commissioning. Familiarity with India's naval infrastructure and recent deployments is key to answering such questions accurately.

The Smart City Mission, launched in 2015, aimed to develop sustainable and citizen-friendly urban spaces. Its 10th anniversary in 2025 highlights its long-term impact. Distinguishing it from other schemes like PM Awas Yojana (housing), AMRUT (urban infrastructure), and Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (sanitation) requires understanding the unique focus of each initiative.

The answer depends on India's score in the SDG Index from the 10th Sustainable Development Report, 2025. 67 (Option A) is the answer. The SDG Index measures a country's progress towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals. India's score of 67 indicates moderate progress. Option B (80) is too high, suggesting significant progress, which isn't accurate. Options C (100) and D (99) are implausible as they imply near-perfect achievement, which no country has attained. For revision, recall recent reports on India's SDG performance, focusing on key areas like poverty, education, and healthcare.

RHUMI-1 refers to India's first reusable hybrid rocket, so option D is correct. A hybrid rocket combines solid and liquid fuel components, offering safety and reusability. Option A is incorrect because India's first Zika virus vaccine isn't related to RHUMI-1. Option B describes a deep-sea submersible, which is unrelated to rocket technology. Option C refers to an exoplanet, which is a celestial body, not a technological development. For revision, connect RHUMI-1 with India's advancements in space technology, emphasizing reusability and hybrid propulsion systems.

The question concerns the head of the IRDAI committee to amend the Insurance Act, 1938. Dinesh Khara (Option B) is the answer. Dinesh Khara, as Chairman of SBI, was appointed to lead this committee, focusing on regulatory reforms. Option A (Ajay Tyagi) is incorrect as he is associated with SEBI, not IRDAI. Option C (Swaminathan Janakiraman) is not linked to this specific committee. Option D (TS Vijayan) might be a distractor, possibly a former IRDAI chairman, but not the current committee head. For revision, remember key appointments in financial regulatory bodies, connecting Dinesh Khara with banking and insurance reforms.

The National Cooperation Policy, 2025, aims to empower cooperatives through 'Sahkar-se-Samriddhi' (Option B), which translates to prosperity through cooperation. This aligns with the goal of making cooperatives central to achieving Viksit Bharat 2047. Option A ('Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas') is a broader governance principle, not specific to cooperatives. Option C ('Sashakt Bharat, Saksham Nagrik') relates to citizen empowerment but isn't the policy's focus. Option D ('Shakti-se-Shraddha') isn't a recognized slogan in this context. For revision, link 'Sahkar-se-Samriddhi' directly to cooperative development and economic growth.

In August 2025, Sonali Mishra (Option A) became the first woman Director General of the RPF. This appointment is historic, given the RPF's 143-year history. Option B (Rashmi Shukla) might refer to another official but isn't linked to this specific post. Option C (Nina Singh) and Option D (Archana Ramasundram) are incorrect, as they are not associated with this landmark appointment. For revision, note significant 'firsts' in administrative and security leadership roles, emphasizing gender milestones in Indian governance.

The correct answer is Option A: Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND) and IRDAI signed an MoU in January 2025 to combat money laundering. The FIU-IND is responsible for analyzing financial intelligence to prevent money laundering, while IRDAI regulates the insurance sector. This collaboration aims to strengthen compliance with the Prevention of Money Laundering Act. Options B and C incorrectly involve SBI and RBI, which aren't part of this specific MoU. Option D (SEBI and LIC) is unrelated to the enforcement of anti-money laundering rules in this context. For revision, recognize the roles of FIU-IND and IRDAI in financial oversight and their joint efforts to prevent illicit financial activities.

The answer depends on a world record in the men's 100m freestyle swimming event at the 2024 Paris Olympics. Key point: recent sports achievements, specifically in swimming. D, Pan Zhanle, as he set the new world record in this event is the answer. Option A, Kyle Chalmers, is a notable Australian swimmer but did not achieve this specific record. Option B, Tom Dean, is recognized for his performances in the 200m and 400m freestyle events, not the 100m. Option C, David Popovici, has been a rising star in swimming but is primarily known for the 200m freestyle. Understanding the distinction between swimmers' specialties and recent Olympic outcomes is crucial here.

Work is positive when the force component is in the displacement direction. Option C states this directly. Option A (zero displacement) means no work, B (opposing motion) is negative work, and D (90° angle) gives zero work. The correct answer is C, as work done W = Fd cosθ, which is positive when cosθ is positive (θ < 90°).

Let the rates be 1/99 (filling), 1/36 (filling), and -1/x (emptying). Combined rate = 1/99 + 1/36 - 1/x = 1/44. Solving, 1/x = 1/99 + 1/36 - 1/44. Find a common denominator (99*36*44) and calculate: 1/x = (36*44 + 99*44 - 99*36) / (99*36*44). Simplifying yields x = 66 min. Option C is correct. Other options miscalculate the combined rate or inversion.

From the given conditions: T has three people to the left, so T is fourth from the left. W is to the right of D, and there are three people between D and C. B is to the left of U and right of V. Arranging them: V, B, T, D, _, C, W. U must be to the right of B, fitting the remaining spot: V, B, T, D, U, C, W. So, between V and U are three people (B, T, D).