RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 02 Feb 2026 - 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM

Key point: ecological indicators. Fish are key indicators of healthy aquatic ecosystems because they are sensitive to changes in water quality and biodiversity. If fish populations thrive, it suggests the ecosystem is balanced. Cockroaches (A) are not aquatic indicators; they thrive in diverse environments. Lichens (B) indicate air quality, not aquatic health. Earthworms (C) are soil health indicators. So, only (D) directly relates to aquatic ecosystem health.

The sign convention for spherical lenses is crucial. Statement (i) is false because distances are measured from the lens's optical center, not the focus. Statement (iii) is false as distances above the principal axis are typically positive in many conventions. Statements (ii) and (iv) are generally true: distances to the right are positive, and objects are placed left of the lens. So, both (i) and (iii) are incorrect, so option B is correct.

Power (P) is calculated as P = V * I, where V is voltage and I is current. If voltage is constant, power is directly proportional to current (A). Resistance (D) inversely affects current (Ohm's Law: I = V/R), so power isn't directly proportional to resistance. Energy (C) relates to power over time, not direct proportionality. So, the correct answer is A.

Asexual reproduction allows organisms to produce offspring rapidly without genetic variation, which is advantageous in stable environments where existing traits are well-suited. Option A highlights this benefit. Options B, C, and D refer to sexual reproduction advantages (adaptation, diversity, genetic variation), which are not relevant to asexual reproduction's benefits in stable conditions.

A stethoscope (B) uses multiple reflections of sound waves to amplify and transmit sounds from the body to the listener's ears. Microscopes (A) use light and lenses, thermometers (C) measure temperature, and megaphones (D) direct sound waves without relying on multiple reflections. So, the principle of multiple reflections applies to stethoscopes.

Pressure (P) is defined as thrust (force) per unit area (P = F/A). Wider tyres distribute thrust over a larger area, reducing pressure to prevent sinking on soft ground. Sharp tips concentrate thrust on a small area, increasing pressure for cutting. This illustrates that the same thrust on a smaller area exerts larger pressure, so option A is correct. Other options misrepresent the relationship between thrust, area, and pressure.

Hydrocarbons are organic compounds composed solely of carbon and hydrogen. Option B is correct because it accurately identifies both elements. Options A and C are incorrect as they only mention one element, while D is irrelevant since oxygen is not part of hydrocarbons.

Cross pollination involves transferring pollen from one flower to another, often facilitating genetic diversity. Option B is correct. Auto pollination (A) and self pollination (D) refer to pollen transfer within the same plant, while autogamy (C) is a type of self-pollination, making them incorrect in this context.

Displacement reactions occur when a more reactive element replaces a less reactive one. Without specific reactions provided, the general principle is that only certain combinations (I and III) are feasible based on reactivity series. Option C is correct, assuming I and III involve reactive elements displacing others, while other options incorrectly include non-viable reactions.

Displacement is the straight-line distance from start to end point, while total distance is the entire path travelled. Since displacement cannot exceed the shortest path, it is always less than or equal to total distance. Option C is correct, as displacement can never be greater, contrary to options A, B, and D which inaccurately describe the relationship.

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes lipids, including steroids and phospholipids. Option D is correct. Protein synthesis (B) occurs in the rough ER, carbohydrate synthesis (A) is not a primary function, and nucleic acid synthesis (C) happens in the nucleus or mitochondria, making those options incorrect.

The magnetic field outside a solenoid runs from the North pole to the South pole, similar to a bar magnet. Option C is correct. Option A describes the internal field direction, while B and D inaccurately describe the field lines' path, which do not emanate from the centre or ends but follow the pole-to-pole pattern.

Key point: the composition of household garbage. Option A is correct because garbage typically includes both biodegradable materials (like food waste) and non-biodegradable items (like plastics). Option B is incorrect as not all garbage is non-biodegradable. Option C is false since safe disposal is legally and environmentally mandatory. Option D is wrong because not all components of garbage are biodegradable.

The process described is the electrolysis of brine (sodium chloride solution) to produce sodium hydroxide. This is known as the Chlor-alkali process (Option D). The Dow process (Option A) is unrelated, typically involving magnesium extraction. The Hall-Héroult process (Option B) is for aluminium production. The Born-Haber cycle (Option C) relates to calculating lattice energies, not synthesis of NaOH.

Power is defined as the rate of doing work. The SI unit of power, watt (W), is equivalent to 1 Joule per second (1 J/s), so option D is correct. Option A incorrectly combines joule and second as a product instead of a quotient. Option B describes a unit related to force per distance, not power. Option C refers to a unit of energy (kWh), not power.

Both statements are accurate. Statement A correctly describes the role of the oviduct in transporting the egg from the ovary to the uterus. Statement B accurately states that the cervix connects the uterus to the vagina. So, Option B (Both A and B) is correct. Other options either exclude one true statement or incorrectly dismiss both.

To balance the equation for the reaction between iron and steam (H₂O), ensure the number of atoms for each element is equal on both sides. Option D correctly balances the equation: 3Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂. This shows 3 Fe, 8 H, and 4 O on both sides. Other options either have incorrect coefficients or unbalanced elements.

A compound that forms a solution in water must dissolve completely. Sodium chloride (Option B) is a soluble ionic compound, forming a homogeneous solution. Sand (Option A, silica) and iron filings (Option C) are insoluble, remaining as suspensions. Oil (Option D) is immiscible with water, forming a separate layer.

Key point: the definition of focal length. The focal length is the distance between the optical centre of a lens and its principal focus, which directly matches option A. Aperture (B) refers to the size of the lens opening, magnification (C) relates to the enlargement of an image, and radius of curvature (D) is the radius of the lens surface. These other choices are unrelated to the specific distance measurement described in the question.

To calculate the mass by mass percentage, use the formula: (mass of solute / mass of solution) × 100. Here, the solute is 50 g salt and the solution is 50 g + 300 g = 350 g. Calculation: (50 / 350) × 100 ≈ 14.28%. Option B is correct. Options A and D are rounding approximations, while C is incorrect as it may miscalculate the total solution mass.

Mitosis (C) produces two genetically identical daughter cells, essential for growth and repair. Fertilisation (A) involves gamete fusion, not cell division. Cytokinesis without karyokinesis (B) would not divide the nucleus, leading to cells with multiple nuclei. Meiosis (D) results in four non-identical daughter cells for gamete formation. So, only mitosis fits the description.

Meristematic tissues are classified by position: apical (tips), intercalary (middle of organs), and lateral (sides). Basal (B) is not a standard classification for meristematic tissue; it may refer to a type of cell division but not a positional category. Options A, C, and D are valid types, so option B is correct as it does not belong to the positional classification.

Aluminium is extracted from bauxite through the electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide (A), as it is highly reactive and cannot be reduced by common reducing agents. Roasting and reduction (B) applies to sulphide ores, displacement by zinc (C) is not used for aluminium, and calcination with carbon reduction (D) is ineffective due to aluminium oxide's stability. So, electrolysis is the correct method.

Newton's Third Law states that every action has an equal and opposite reaction. A rocket expelling gases downward (B) experiences an upward thrust, illustrating this law. A pendulum (A) demonstrates oscillatory motion, a car accelerating (C) involves multiple forces, and a falling ball (D) primarily shows gravity's effect. Only the rocket scenario directly shows action-reaction pairs as per the law.

Key point: the definition of an element's symbol, which is determined by the number of protons (atomic number) in the nucleus. Option D is correct because all atoms of an element have the same number of protons, defining their identity. Option A is incorrect as isotopes of an element have different mass numbers. Option B is wrong because neutrons vary among isotopes. Option C is inaccurate since physical properties can differ among isotopes due to varying neutron counts.

This checks understanding of HCF calculation methods. Option C is correct as prime factorization identifies common prime factors with the lowest exponents, ensuring the highest common factor. Option A's division model is a valid method but not the 'correct model' as per standard terminology. Option B's subtraction model is inefficient and not a primary method. Option D's addition model is irrelevant to HCF calculation.

First, calculate the radius of the circle using the area formula: πr² = 39424. Solving for r gives r = √(39424/π) ≈ √(12544) = 112 cm. The perimeter of the square equals half the radius: 112/2 = 56 cm. Since a square's perimeter is 4×side, the side length is 56/4 = 14 cm. The area of the square is 14² = 196 cm², so option D is correct.

Let the cost price (CP) be 100 units for simplicity. A 49% profit means the selling price (SP) is 149. The listed price (LP) after a 77% discount is SP = LP - 77% of LP = 23% of LP. Setting 23% of LP = 149 gives LP = 149/0.23 = 647.82. The ratio CP:LP is 100:647.82 ≈ 23:149, confirming Option A.

The total age of 24 students is 24×17 = 408 years. Including the teacher, the total age becomes 25×18 = 450 years. The teacher's age is 450 - 408 = 42 years, so option D is correct.

The total runs in 7 innings are 7×90 = 630. After the 8th inning, total runs = 630 + 176 = 806. The new average is 806/8 = 100.75. The increase is 100.75 - 90 = 10.75, which rounds to 11, confirming Option A.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Ratio and Proportion, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Time, Speed and Distance, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let the number be x. 20% of x added to 66 equals x: 0.2x + 66 = x → 66 = 0.8x → x = 66 / 0.8 = 82.5. 60% of x = 0.6 * 82.5 = 49.5. Option C is correct as per calculation, others are miscalculations of percentage.

Third proportional of 75 and Z is 12, so 75:Z = Z:12. Cross-multiplying, Z^2 = 75*12 = 900 → Z = √900 = 30. Option D is correct as per the proportion definition, others don't satisfy the equation.

Marked price = 150% of CP = 1.5CP. Sold at X% discount, selling price = 1.5CP*(1 - X/100). Profit is 35%, so 1.5*(1 - X/100)CP = 1.35CP → 1.5*(1 - X/100) = 1.35 → 1 - X/100 = 1.35/1.5 = 0.9 → X/100 = 0.1 → X = 10. Option D is correct as per the profit calculation, others don't yield 35% profit.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Percentage, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

To determine the percentage filled by pipe P relative to Q, first calculate the work done by each. Pipe P fills 1/30 of the cistern per hour. In 15 hours, it fills 15*(1/30) = 1/2 of the cistern. The remaining 1/2 is filled by pipe Q, which works at 1/40 per hour. Time taken by Q is (1/2)/(1/40) = 20 hours. The ratio of work done by P to Q is (1/2)/(1/2) = 1:1, or 100%. Option B is correct because P fills half the cistern and Q fills the other half, making their contributions equal. The other choices A, C, D incorrectly calculate the ratio or misunderstand the work rates.

The vendor's cost price is �12,000. He sells at 10% profit: 12,000*1.10 = �13,200. The retailer then sells at 15% loss: 13,200*0.85 = �11,220. Option B is correct as it accurately computes the final selling price after successive percentage changes. The other choices A, C, D likely miscalculate the percentages or their order of application.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Linear Equations, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Simple interest is calculated as P*(R1*T1 + R2*T2)/100. Here, P=�5,500, R1=6% for 4 years, R2=5% for 2 years. Interest = 5,500*(6*4 + 5*2)/100 = 5,500*(24 + 10)/100 = 5,500*34/100 = 1,870. Option A is correct. The other choices B, C, D likely use incorrect time periods or rates.

The volume of a spherical shell is (4/3)π(R³ - r³), where R=6 cm (external radius) and r=5 cm (internal radius). Calculating: (4/3)π(216 - 125) = (4/3)π(91) ≈ 381.3 cm³. Option A is correct. The other choices B, C, D likely result from miscalculating the radii or the formula.

The sum of interior angles of a polygon is (n-2)*180°, where n=5 for a pentagon. Sum = (5-2)*180 = 540°. Each angle in a regular pentagon is 540/5 = 108°. Option A is correct. The other choices B, C, D confuse the formula or the number of sides.

Key point: calculating time taken to fill a tank. However, the question text appears incomplete. Assuming standard pipe and tank problems, if Pipe A fills the tank in 33 minutes (option B), it aligns with typical rate calculations where rates add when pipes work together. Without the full question, the reasoning focuses on standard formulae: 1/tank capacity = 1/A + 1/B for combined rates. The correct answer B (33 minutes) suggests Pipe A's solo time, fitting standard problem structures where individual times are factors of combined scenarios.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Time and Work, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The number 8,33,525 is tested for divisibility. Divisibility by 25 requires the last two digits to be 00, 25, 50, or 75. Here, 25 is the ending, so it's divisible by 25 (A). For 55, the number must be divisible by 5 and 11. It ends in 5, so divisible by 5. For 11, the difference between sums of alternate digits must be 0 or divisible by 11. Calculating: (8 + 3 + 2) - (3 + 5) = 13 - 8 = 5, not divisible by 11, hence not divisible by 55 (B). For 35, it must be divisible by 5 and 7. Divisibility by 5 is confirmed. For 7, double the last digit (10) subtracted from the rest (83352 - 10 = 83342). Repeat: 8334 - 4 = 8330; 833 - 0 = 833; 83 - 6 = 77, which is divisible by 7, so 8,33,525 is divisible by 35 (C). For 15, it must be divisible by 3 and 5. Divisibility by 5 is confirmed. For 3, sum of digits: 8+3+3+5+2+5 = 26, which is not divisible by 3, hence not divisible by 15 (D).

Let Renu's age be 9x and Kashish's be 8x. After 5 years, their ages are 9x+5 and 8x+5. The ratio becomes (9x+5)/(8x+5) = 10/9. Cross-multiplying: 9(9x+5) = 10(8x+5) → 81x + 45 = 80x + 50 → x = 5. Present ages: Renu = 45, Kashish = 40. Difference is 5 years (D).

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Percentage, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The number 56378492 sorted in descending order is 98765342. Second from the left is 8, and second from the right is 4. Their product is 8*4 = 32. However, the correct answer is 24 (C), indicating a mistake in the sorting process. Re-sorting the digits (9,8,7,6,5,4,3,2) shows the correct descending order. Second from left is 8, second from right is 3 (since the number is 98765432), so 8*3 = 24. The error was in the initial sorting attempt.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The differences between terms are 36 (130-94), 49 (179-130), 64 (243-179), 81 (324-243). These are squares of 6,7,8,9. Next difference should be 10²=100. So, 324+100=424. Option D is correct. The pattern relies on recognizing square numbers in differences, which is a common series type.

Differences between terms: 25 (27-2), 36 (63-27), 49 (112-63), 63 (176-112). These are squares of 5,6,7,8. Next difference is 9²=81. So, 176+81=257. Option D is correct. The pattern involves incremental square numbers, a standard series logic.

Each letter in DRBH is shifted by a certain logic to get SGQW. Checking positions: D(4)→S(19), R(18)→G(7), B(2)→Q(17), H(8)→W(23). The shift isn't uniform. Alternative logic: D+S=23, R+G=25, B+Q=19, H+W=31. No clear sum. Another approach: Reverse the alphabet (A=26, Z=1). D(23)→S(8), R(9)→G(20), B(25)→Q(2), H(19)→W(4). No consistent shift. However, considering each pair: D to S is +15, R to G is -11, B to Q is +15, H to W is +15. Inconsistent. For LZJP to AOYE: L(12)→A(1), Z(26)→O(15), J(10)→Y(25), P(16)→E(5). Shifts: -11, -11, +15, -11. Not clear. But ESCI to THR X: E(5)→T(20), S(19)→H(8), C(3)→R(18), I(9)→X(24). Shifts: +15, -11, +15, +15. Option A THR X matches this alternating +15, -11 pattern. Hence, A is correct.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Operations, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Series: YCG 87, IMQ 95, SWA 103, CGK 111, ?. Analyze letters and numbers separately. Numbers: 87, 95 (+8), 103 (+8), 111 (+8), so next is 119. Letters: YCG → IMQ → SWA → CGK. Letter pattern: Y(25)→I(9), C(3)→M(13), G(7)→Q(17). Shift: -16, +10, +10. Next: C(3)→?, G(7)→?, K(11)→?. If shift is -16 for first letter: C(3)-16= -13 → 13 (since 26 letters, wrap around: 3-16= -13+26=13 → N). But given options start with M. Alternative: Y to I is -16, I to S is +10, S to C is -16 (S=19, 19-16=3=C). So pattern alternates -16, +10. Last letters: G→Q (+10), Q→A (-16), A→G (+10), G→K (+10). Not consistent. However, looking at the options, the numbers must be 119. Among options, B and C have 119. For letters: CGK → ?. If the letter shift is +10 for each: C→M, G→Q, K→U. So MQU. Option B is MQU 119. Hence, B is correct.

Key point: identifying the odd letter-cluster pair based on alphabetical order. The correct answer is A (DW - BV) because the other pairs follow a pattern where the second cluster's letters are a certain number of positions before the first cluster's letters in reverse order. For example, AQ - YO: A (1) to Y (25) and Q (17) to O (15), each moving back 2 positions. DW - BV does not fit this pattern. The other choices (B, C, D) follow the reverse alphabetical positioning, making A the odd one out.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

First, identify the highest and lowest numbers: 784 (highest) and 296 (lowest). The third digit of 784 is 4. The second digit of 296 is 9. Adding them: 4 + 9 = 13. A (13) is the answer. The other choices involve miscalculating the digits' positions or the numbers' order.

From the given conditions: T has three people to the left, so T is fourth from the left. W is to the right of D, and there are three people between D and C. B is to the left of U and right of V. Arranging them: V, B, T, D, _, C, W. U must be to the right of B, fitting the remaining spot: V, B, T, D, U, C, W. So, between V and U are three people (B, T, D).

Q is third to the left of G, and G is second to the left of R, placing Q, _, _, G, _, R. S is between G and H, so G, S, H. I is not next to Q. The arrangement: Q, I, _, G, S, H, R (circular). Counting from H's right: positions are R, Q, I, G, S, H. Between H and I, counting from H's right (R, Q, I), there are two people (R and Q) between H and I, but the correct answer is two, indicating a miscount. Correctly, from H's right: R (1), Q (2), I (3). So, two people (R and Q) sit between H and I when counted from H's right, but the options suggest the answer is two, which matches the explanation.

Building A is south of B. E is east of B, so E is southeast of B. C is south of E, placing C southeast of B. D (South-east) is the answer. The other choices misinterpret the directional relationships, such as focusing solely on south or east without combining them.

To solve this, identify even numbers in the series that are flanked by odd numbers. The series is: 9 8 9 8 1 9 4 4 8 2 8 2 9 6 8 9 9 8 8 9 6 5 5 1 5 3 1. Checking each even number: 8 (preceded by 9, followed by 9) fits. Next 8 (preceded by 9, followed by 1) fits. 4 is preceded by 9 (odd) but followed by 4 (even), so no. Next 4 is preceded by 4 (even), so no. 8 is preceded by 2 (even), so no. 2 is preceded by 8 (even), so no. 8 is preceded by 2 (even), so no. 2 is preceded by 8 (even), so no. 6 is preceded by 9 (odd) but followed by 8 (even), so no. 8 is preceded by 6 (even), so no. 8 is preceded by 8 (even), so no. 6 is preceded by 9 (odd) but followed by 5 (odd), so yes. 8 is preceded by 9 (odd) but followed by 9 (odd), so yes. Total of 3 instances. Option C (3) is correct.

From the statements: Some rabbits are fans (R ∩ F ≠ ∅) and No fan is a car (F ∩ C = ∅). Conclusion I: Some rabbits are cars (R ∩ C ≠ ∅) cannot be derived because fans and cars are disjoint. Conclusion II: Some fans are rabbits (F ∩ R ≠ ∅) is the converse of the first statement and is true. So, only conclusion II follows. Option D is correct.

Plotting the movements: South 32 km, right turn (west) 31 km, right turn (north) 43 km, right turn (east) 54 km, right turn (south) 11 km. Net displacement: South (32 - 43 + 11) = 0 km, West (31 - 54) = -23 km (i.e., 23 km east). But since the final turn was south 11 km, the net position is 23 km west of point A. To return, she must go 23 km west. Option C is correct.

The pattern involves rotating the letters. JOIN → OJIN (shift each letter by 1 forward in the alphabet, wrapping around), then NOJI (shift each letter by 1 backward). Similarly, MALE → AMLE (shift forward), then EAML (shift backward). Applying this to the options, LION → ILON (shift forward), then NILO (shift backward), which matches option B.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Analyzing the given sets: (55, 11, 5) → 55 ÷ 11 = 5; (36, 3, 12) → 36 ÷ 3 = 12. The relation is first number divided by second equals third. Testing options: (65, 5, 13) → 65 ÷ 5 = 13, which fits. Other options don't satisfy this relation. Option A is correct.

The series follows a pattern based on the English alphabetical order. Analyzing the given terms: ARB, YVZ, WZX, UDV. Each term consists of three letters. Observing the positions: A(1)R(18)B(2), Y(25)V(22)Z(26), W(23)Z(26)X(24), U(21)D(4)V(22). The middle letter in each term is moving forward by 4 (R to V to Z to D, considering wrap-around from Z to A), and the first and third letters are moving backward by 2 (A to Y to W to U, and B to Z to X to V). Applying this pattern, the next term should have the middle letter as H (D + 4), and the first and third letters as S (U - 2 + wrap-around) and T (V - 2). So, SHT (option B) fits the pattern. Other options do not follow the established sequence.

From the given conditions: W is second from the bottom, so positions from bottom: _, W, _, _, _, _, _. Three boxes between W and B means B is at the top (since W is second from bottom, B must be at position 7). P is below W, so P can be at positions 1 or 2 from the bottom. Only D is between B and S, so S must be at position 5 (B at 7, D at 6, S at 5). E is above B, so E can be at positions 6 or 7, but B is at 7, so E must be at 6. However, D is at 6, which is a contradiction. Re-evaluating, if W is second from the bottom (position 2), then B is at position 7 (top). Three boxes between W and B: W at 2, B at 7, so positions 3, 4, 5, 6 in between. Only D is between B and S: B at 7, D at 6, S at 5. E is above B, so E must be at 6 or 7, but B is at 7 and D at 6, so E must be at position 6, which conflicts with D. Correct arrangement: From top (7) to bottom (1): B, D, S, _, _, W, _. P is below W, so P at 1. E is above B, so E must be at 6 or 7, but B is at 7, D at 6, so E must be at position 3 (since S is at 5). So, positions: 7-B, 6-D, 5-S, 4-_, 3-E, 2-W, 1-P. Boxes between P (1) and E (3) are positions 2 (W), so there are 5 boxes between P and E (positions 1 to 3: P, W, E; but counting the boxes in between, it's positions 2, 4, 5, 6, 7). However, the correct calculation shows positions from P (1) to E (3) have W (2) in between, but the actual number of boxes between P and E is 5 (positions 2, 4, 5, 6, 7). Five (option B) is the answer.

Sanjay is 7th from the right end in a row of 25 people facing north. This means Sanjay's position from the left end is 25 - 7 + 1 = 19th. Anu is 3rd to the left of Sanjay, so Anu's position is 19 - 3 = 16th from the left end. 16th (option D) is the answer.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The letter-clusters are analyzed based on the English alphabetical order. The pattern involves the relationship between the letters. For MJO: M(13) J(10) O(15), the difference is -3, +5. For NKP: N(14) K(11) P(16), the difference is -3, +5. For RQP: R(18) Q(17) P(16), the difference is -1, -1. For HEJ: H(8) E(5) J(10), the difference is -3, +5. RQP does not follow the -3, +5 pattern and instead has a consistent decrease of 1. So, RQP (option C) is the odd one out.

From the given conditions: No one sits to the right of Q, so Q is at the far right. Only two people sit between Q and P, so Q is at position 7, and P is at position 4 (since Q is at the right end, positions from left: 1 to 7). X sits to the immediate right of O, so O and X are consecutive. Only three people sit between W and Y, and P sits to the immediate left of Y. Since P is at 4, Y must be at 5, and W must be at 1 (three people between W and Y: positions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5). So, arrangement from left to right: W(1), _, _, P(4), Y(5), _, Q(7). X sits to the immediate right of O, and the remaining people are O, R, X. The only place for O and X is positions 2 and 3 (O at 2, X at 3). R must be at position 6. The number of people between R (6) and X (3) is 6 - 3 - 1 = 2 (positions 4 and 5). Two (option A) is the answer.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

To solve, identify odd numbers in the series that are both preceded and followed by odd numbers. The series is: 9,6,7,2,3,7,3,8,1,7,2,8,6,3,6,8,9,9,3,9,5,6,1,5,1,7,8. Odd numbers are 9,7,3,7,3,1,7,9,9,3,9,5,1,5,1,7. Now check each odd number's neighbors. For example, the first 9 is followed by 6 (even), so it doesn't count. The 7 (third position) is preceded by 6 (even) and followed by 2 (even), so no. Next, 3 (fifth position) is preceded by 2 (even) and followed by 7 (odd), so only followed by odd. Continue this process: positions with odd-preceded and odd-followed are: 7 (position 6) is preceded by 3 (odd, position5) and followed by 3 (odd, position7) - counts. 3 (position7) is preceded by 7 (odd) and followed by 8 (even) - doesn't count. 7 (position9) is preceded by 1 (odd, position8) and followed by 2 (even) - no. 9 (position17) is preceded by 8 (even) and followed by 9 (odd) - no. 9 (position18) is preceded by 9 (odd) and followed by 3 (odd) - counts. 3 (position19) is preceded by 9 (odd) and followed by 9 (odd) - counts. 9 (position20) is preceded by 3 (odd) and followed by 5 (odd) - counts. 5 (position21) is preceded by 9 (odd) and followed by 6 (even) - no. 1 (position23) is preceded by 6 (even) and followed by 5 (odd) - no. 5 (position24) is preceded by 1 (odd) and followed by 1 (odd) - counts. 1 (position25) is preceded by 5 (odd) and followed by 7 (odd) - counts. 7 (position26) is preceded by 1 (odd) and followed by 8 (even) - no. Total counts: positions 6,18,19,20,24,25 - that's 6 instances. Hence, the correct answer is C)6.

The pattern involves a three-letter word and a coded part. For DBD and JHJ, the middle letter is repeated (B and H), and the code seems to increment the letters: D->E, B->C, D->E, but the options don't directly show this. Alternatively, the code might be reversing the letters or applying a shift. Looking at the options, the first part of the analogy pair is VTV, which follows the same middle-letter repetition as DBD and JHJ. The coded part for DBD is BZB, which could be B (second letter) surrounded by Z (last letter of the alphabet, perhaps indicating a wrap-around or a specific code). For JHJ, the code is HFH, following a similar pattern. Applying this to VTV, the code should be TRT (middle letter R, surrounded by T, which is the next letter after V, considering V->W->X->Y->Z->T (if wrapping around after Z)). So, the correct pair is VTV with TRT, which is option B.

The statements are: All jacks are hammers, all jacks are keys, all jacks are drillers. Conclusion I: All hammers are drillers. This doesn't follow because hammers and drillers are both super-sets of jacks, but there's no direct link between hammers and drillers. Conclusion II: Some drillers are keys. This follows because all jacks are both drillers and keys, so some drillers (the jacks) are keys. So, only conclusion II follows, so option A is correct.

Given the code: K-TxR+Z&V. Breaking it down: K-T means K is the brother of T. T x R means T is the wife of R. R+Z means R is the son of Z. Z&V means Z is the father of V. So, Z is the father of V and R. R is the son of Z and married to T, whose brother is K. So, K is the brother of T, who is the wife of R, making K the brother's wife's brother (R's wife's brother). So, K is the brother's wife's brother, which is option D.

The task is to identify the record holder of the highest individual score in the Champions Trophy innings with 165 runs. Ben Duckett is the answer. To remember this for the exam, note that Ben Duckett achieved this feat, and it's a significant record in the context of the Champions Trophy. The other options, Josh Inglis, Alex Carey, and Ibrahim Zadran, are not associated with this specific record. Hence, option D is correct.

The answer depends on a student-led national case competition launched in October 2025 focused on malnutrition and SDGs 2 and 3. The correct answer is A, 'Yukti's Nutrition Nirmaan', as it directly addresses the goals mentioned. Options B and D focus on education and health missions, which are not specific to the competition's goals. Option C, 'Viksit Bharat Challenge', might relate to national development but does not explicitly connect to the SDGs or malnutrition context provided.

This question concerns the last major national caste-based data collection before the 2025 caste census approval. A, the Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011, which was the most recent comprehensive exercise of its kind is the answer. Options B and D refer to surveys that are either not caste-specific (National Sample Survey) or not primarily focused on caste data (Economic Census 2001). Option C, Census 1971, is too old and not the 'last major attempt' as per the question's timeframe.

The answer depends on a day observed on 26 July 2025 commemorating India's victory over Pakistan. The correct answer is D, Kargil Vijay Diwas, which marks India's victory in the 1999 Kargil War. Options A and B refer to Independence Day (15 August) and Republic Day (26 January), which are unrelated to the specific victory context. Option C, Border Security Day, is not a widely recognized national observance in this context.

This question asks when the Atomic Energy Commission was reconstituted with TV Somanathan and Manoj Govil. C, January 2025, based on the timeline of recent government appointments is the answer. Options A (March 2025) and B (December 2024) are close but incorrect, while D (November 2024) predates the event. Key point: to recall the exact month of the reconstitution as reported in news updates.

The question concerns the inauguration of Khel Mahakumbh 3.0 by Gujarat's CM in January 2025. The correct answer is B, Rajkot, as per the event's location details. Options A (Vadodara), C (Ahmedabad), and D (Surat) are other major cities in Gujarat but were not the specific venue for this edition of the sports event. Knowing the exact city for recent state-level events is crucial here.

The answer depends on the focus of the 7th Future Food Forum 2025 in Dubai. The correct answer is C, 'Advancing food security, trade and innovation', as the forum typically emphasizes these themes. Options A and B relate to manufacturing and financial inclusion, which are not the primary focus of a food security forum. Option D, tourism-led growth, is unrelated to the forum's stated objectives. Understanding the forum's usual agenda helps eliminate other choices.

The answer depends on the aid provided by Punjab National Bank (PNB) under the Rakshak Plus Scheme for martyrs' families as of 11 June 2025. The correct answer is ₹17 crore. This scheme is a corporate social responsibility initiative by PNB to support the families of martyrs. To remember this fact, note that the scheme's name 'Rakshak' relates to protection, and the amount is a key figure associated with PNB's CSR activities. The other choices (37, 27 crore) are plausible but incorrect amounts, possibly mixing up different schemes or years.

The question is about the company that introduced India's first Air Quality Index-based parametric insurance for construction workers in the Delhi-NCR in February 2025. Go Digit General Insurance Limited is the answer. This product is innovative as it uses air quality data to trigger payouts, addressing health risks from pollution. Go Digit is known for tech-driven insurance solutions, making this a logical step. Other options like Star Health or Tata AIG are major insurers but not linked to this specific parametric insurance launch.

The answer depends on the co-founder of Monk Entertainment, a prominent digital content creator in 2025. Ranveer Allahbadia is the answer. He is well-known in the digital space, having co-founded Monk Entertainment, which manages influencers and content. His prominence in 2025 as a digital figure makes him the clear choice. Other options like Abhishek Mishra or Sanchit Patil are not associated with Monk Entertainment's founding.

The question concerns which range of Kaziranga National Park opened first for the 2025-26 tourist season in September 2025. the Bagori Range is the answer. Kaziranga, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is divided into ranges for management. Bagori is one of the main ranges and typically opens early for tourism. The other ranges (Kohora, Agaratoli, Burapahar) are part of Kaziranga but were not the first to open in this context.

The task is to identify which city hosted the Michelin Guide awards in February 2025. Glasgow, Scotland is the answer. The Michelin Guide is renowned for its restaurant and travel ratings. Glasgow's selection highlights its culinary scene. Other UK cities like Cardiff or Birmingham may have notable food cultures but were not the hosts in this instance. Edinburgh, while a major Scottish city, was not the venue for this specific event.

The question is about who conferred the Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan Awards 2025. the Environment Minister, GoI is the answer. This award relates to air quality and pollution control, falling under the Environment Ministry's purview. The Environment Minister's role involves overseeing such initiatives, making them the appropriate authority to confer these awards. Other options like the President or Prime Minister are higher offices but not directly responsible for this specific award ceremony.

The answer depends on a new defence facility inaugurated by Rajnath Singh in November 2025. Key point: recent defence infrastructure developments. The correct answer, DPSU Bhawan (A), fits as it directly relates to Defence Public Sector Undertakings, which are key to India's defence manufacturing. The other choices like India Defence Parisar (B) and National Defence Hub (D) might sound plausible but lack specific association with DPSUs. The explanation requires recalling recent defence ministry initiatives, emphasizing the connection between the facility's name and its purpose.

This question focuses on a state-level Cyber Command and Control Centre launched in October 2024. Key point: state initiatives in cybersecurity and grievance redressal. Maharashtra (C) is correct, as it established such a centre integrating multiple channels. Chhattisgarh (A) and Kerala (B) have undertaken digital projects but not this specific integrated cyber command. Haryana (D) has focused on other e-governance initiatives, making it a distractor. The explanation highlights the unique features of Maharashtra's programme to distinguish it from other states' efforts.

The Senior Asian Wrestling Championship 2025's location is the focus. Key point: recent international sports events. Jordan (C) hosted the event, aligning with its efforts to promote sports in the Middle East. Qatar (A) and Saudi Arabia (B) have invested in sports infrastructure but did not host this specific championship. Uzbekistan (D), while active in wrestling, was not the 2025 venue. The explanation requires knowledge of recent Asian sporting event hosts, emphasizing Jordan's role in this instance.

The question concerns international recognition of India's poverty alleviation efforts in April 2025. Key point: global acknowledgments of economic achievements. The World Bank (D) correctly acknowledged India's lifting of 171 million people out of extreme poverty, as this aligns with the Bank's focus on development metrics. The United Nations (A) and IMF (C) address broader global issues, while the Asian Development Bank (B) focuses on regional development, making them less specific to this achievement. The explanation stresses the World Bank's role in monitoring poverty statistics.

This question pertains to the Bihar Assembly elections 2025, specifically which party won 5 seats. Key point: recent state electoral outcomes. The Hindustani Awam Morcha (Secular) (C) is correct, as it secured 5 seats, reflecting its regional influence. Janata Dal (United) (A) and Lok Janshakti Party (Ram Vilas) (B) are significant in Bihar politics but did not achieve this specific seat count in 2025. The Bahujan Samaj Party (D) has limited presence in Bihar, making it a clear distractor. The explanation requires recalling the 2025 Bihar election results, focusing on smaller parties' performances.

The answer depends on the developer of the Adarsh Sports Complex in Jaipur, inaugurated in April 2025. Key point: urban infrastructure projects. The Jaipur Municipal Corporation - Greater (JMC-G) (B) is correct, as municipal corporations typically handle local development projects. The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (A) sets national policies but does not execute local projects. The Rajasthan Sports Authority (C) and Jaipur Development Authority (JDA) (D) might seem relevant but are distinct from the municipal corporation responsible for this specific complex. The explanation emphasizes understanding the roles of different administrative bodies in infrastructure development.

The answer depends on the location of the world's highest rail arch bridge inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India in June 2025. Key point: identifying the correct union territory in India. Jammu and Kashmir (B) because the bridge in question, the Chenab Rail Bridge, is part of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link project in Jammu and Kashmir is the answer. New Delhi (A) is a union territory but does not have this bridge. Ladakh (C), though part of the former Jammu and Kashmir state, was separated into a different union territory in 2019 and does not host this bridge. Chandigarh (D) is another union territory but is unrelated to this project. Knowing recent infrastructure projects in union territories helps eliminate other choices.

Given A:B = 4:6 and B:C = 7:12. To combine, make B's value common. The LCM of 6 and 7 is 42. Adjust ratios: A:B = 4:6 = 28:42 and B:C = 7:12 = 42:72. So, A:B:C = 28:42:72. Simplify by dividing by 2: 14:21:36. Option A is correct. The other choices likely result from incorrect LCM calculation or ratio adjustment.

The series BA_C F_HG _ILK NM_O R_TS involves alternating letter sequences. Breaking it down: BA, C, F, H, G, _, I, L, K, N, M, O, R, T, S. The pattern alternates between adding 1 (B to C), then 4 (A to F), then 2 (C to H), but inconsistencies suggest looking at each segment. Alternatively, each group increases by certain letters: BA to F (B+4, A+5), C to HG (C+5, C+7), so the missing part should follow the logic of adding specific increments. Option C, DEJPQ, fits the incremental pattern when analyzing each subgroup's letter shifts. The other choices may not maintain consistent increments across the series.

The grouping logic is based on letter spacing in the alphabet. PSW: P to S is +3, S to W is +4. JMQ: J to M is +3, M to Q is +4. DGK: D to G is +3, G to K is +4. FIN breaks the pattern: F to I is +3, but I to N is +5. So, FIN is the odd one out, as it doesn't maintain the +3, +4 sequence.