RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 04 Feb 2026 - 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM

Key point: genetic variation through sexual reproduction. Option C is correct because sexual reproduction involves the fusion of gametes from two parents, leading to new genetic combinations in offspring. This variation enhances adaptability and survival in changing environments. Option A is incorrect as clones are products of asexual reproduction. Option B is irrelevant to survival advantage, and Option D contradicts the principle of genetic variation.

Losing an electron results in a positively charged ion. Option B is correct because a cation is formed when an atom loses electrons, gaining a positive charge. Option A is wrong as losing electrons disrupts neutrality. Option C refers to anion formation by gaining electrons, which is the opposite scenario. Option D is unrelated, as losing an electron doesn't form a molecule.

As the object falls, potential energy converts to kinetic energy. Just before impact, all potential energy is converted, making kinetic energy highest and potential energy lowest. Option B states this, while Option A reverses the energy states. Option C applies to mid-fall, not just before impact. Option D violates energy conservation principles.

In electrolytic refining, impure metal is purified at the cathode. Option C is correct: the anode is impure copper (dissolves into solution), and the cathode is pure copper (deposits refined metal). Option A is incorrect as both electrodes cannot be impure. Option B reverses the electrodes, and Option D would prevent purification by using pure copper for both.

Uniform acceleration means constant slope on a velocity-time graph. Option D is correct because uniform acceleration results in a straight line with a constant slope (inclined to the time axis). Option A describes non-uniform acceleration. Option B is a horizontal line indicating zero acceleration, and Option C (vertical line) is physically impossible for a velocity-time graph.

The molar mass ratio of C:O in CO₂ is 12:16, simplifying to 3:4 by mass. However, the item asks for the ratio by mass in the compound. The correct calculation is 12:(16×2) = 12:32, which simplifies to 3:8. Option B correctly represents this ratio. Option A (1:2) refers to the atomic ratio, not mass. Options C and D are incorrect simplifications or misunderstandings of the ratio.

Complex tissues are composed of multiple cell types working together. Option D is correct because complex tissues like xylem and phloem consist of various specialized cells. Options A and B are incorrect as they describe simple tissues or single cells, while C is invalid since all tissues are made of cells.

The heating effect of electric current is utilized in appliances that generate heat. Option A is correct as electric heaters, irons, and fuses rely on this principle. Options B and C involve magnetic or sound effects, not heating, while D refers to light emission, making them incorrect.

Bryophyllum plants exhibit vegetative propagation through buds on leaf margins. Option A is correct as these buds develop into new plants. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because vegetative propagation in Bryophyllum does not occur at the leaf tip, flower, or pedicel.

Magnetic field lines emerge from the north pole and enter the south pole outside the magnet. Option B states this property. Option A is false as field lines never intersect. Option C incorrectly links field line density to zero strength, and D reverses the pole directions, making them incorrect.

First, convert 36 km/hr to 10 m/s and 3 minutes to 180 seconds. Using the equation v = u + at, where u = 0, final velocity v = 10 m/s, and time t = 180 s, acceleration a = 10/180 = 1/18 m/s². Distance s = ut + 0.5at² = 0 + 0.5*(1/18)*(180)² = 0.5*(1/18)*32400 = 900 m. So, option D is correct.

Secretions from the prostate gland and seminal vesicles form the seminal fluid, which nourishes and transports sperm. Option B is correct as these secretions provide nutrients and facilitate sperm movement. Option A refers to the urinary bladder's function, C is inaccurate as no destruction occurs, and D misrepresents the role of these secretions.

Key point: plant adaptations for climbing. Tendrils are modified stems or leaves that are sensitive to touch, helping plants climb by coiling around supports. Thorns are protective structures, seeds are for reproduction, and flowers are for pollination. So, only tendrils fit the description, so option A is correct.

This checks recognition of chemical changes. Adding dilute HCl to zinc produces hydrogen gas, indicating a chemical reaction (zinc displaces hydrogen from the acid). This cannot be a physical change (D) or mixture formation (A/C), as new substances are formed. Hence, option B is correct.

The assertion states zinc displaces copper, which is true as zinc is more reactive. However, the reason claims zinc is less reactive than copper, which is false. Reactivity series knowledge is key here. So, option B is correct because the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

For a convex lens, when the object is at infinity, parallel rays converge at the focal point (F). Using the lens formula 1/f = 1/v - 1/u, with u approaching infinity, v equals f. So the image forms at F, so option A is correct. Other options describe different object positions.

Transpiration pull (from evaporation at leaf surfaces) and root pressure (from root activity) drive upward water movement in plants. While active transport (D) occurs, it's not the primary mechanism for long-distance transport. So, option B is correct, combining both key processes.

Stethoscopes work by guiding sound waves through multiple reflections in the tube, directing them to the doctor's ears. Refraction (A) involves change in medium, which isn't the main principle here. Amplification (C) and absorption (D) are irrelevant. Hence, option B correctly explains the functioning of stethoscopes.

The gravitational force (F) is given by F = G*(m1*m2)/r². Here, masses (m1 and m2) are tripled, so the numerator becomes 9 times. The radius (r) of the Earth is halved, but the distance between the objects (r in the formula) is unchanged as per the question. So, the denominator remains the same. The net effect is a 9-fold increase in force, so option C is correct. Options A and B ignore the squared relation of mass or misapply the radius change, while D incorrectly combines factors.

Ionic compounds are characterized by strong electrostatic forces between oppositely charged ions, which is option A. Option B is incorrect as many ionic compounds are soluble in water. Option C is false because ionic compounds conduct electricity well in the molten state. Option D is incorrect since ionic compounds typically have high melting points due to strong ionic bonds.

Centrosomes, which help in cell division, are present in animal cells but not in plant cells, so option A is correct. Vacuoles (B) are more prominent in plant cells. Mitochondria (C) and Golgi apparatus (D) are found in both plant and animal cells, so they are not unique to animal cells.

Oxidation of ethanol with a strong oxidizing agent like alkaline KMnO4 typically results in the formation of ethanoic acid (CH3COOH), which is option C. This reaction involves the oxidation of the -OH group in ethanol to a -COOH group. Option A (acetone) would require a different starting material or conditions. Option B (methanoic acid) would result from oxidation of methanol, not ethanol. Option D (methane) is unrelated to this oxidation process.

The reaction between ethanoic acid and ethanol in the presence of concentrated H2SO4 is a condensation reaction, forming an ester (ethyl ethanoate) and water. This is an example of Fischer esterification, so option C is correct. Sodium acetate (A) would form in a neutralization reaction with sodium hydroxide. Methanol (B) and acetone (D) are not products of this reaction.

Biological magnification refers to the increasing concentration of pollutants, such as pesticides, in the tissues of organisms at higher trophic levels. This occurs because pesticides are not easily broken down and accumulate in the food chain, which is why option A is correct. Eutrophication (B) relates to nutrient enrichment in water bodies. Transpiration (C) is the loss of water from plants, and photosynthesis (D) is the process of converting light energy to chemical energy, neither of which directly explains pesticide residue accumulation.

The twinkling of stars is caused by atmospheric refraction, which bends the star's light as it passes through Earth's atmosphere. Statement (iv) is correct. Statement (iii) refers to the apparent positional change due to Earth's rotation, which is also true. Stars emit their own light, so (i) is false. Reflection (ii) is not the cause of twinkling. So, both (iii) and (iv) are true, so option A is correct.

To find 16³ - 10³, calculate each term: 16³ = 4096 and 10³ = 1000. Subtracting gives 4096 - 1000 = 3096. Option B is correct as it matches the calculated result. Other options are incorrect due to arithmetic errors.

Successive discounts of 12% and 13% are calculated by first applying 12% discount, leaving 88% of the original price. Then 13% off the reduced price: 88% * (100% - 13%) = 88% * 87% = 76.56%. The total discount is 100% - 76.56% = 23.44%, so option A is correct. Other options miscalculate the combined effect.

The original cuboid's surface area is 2(18*12 + 12*8 + 18*8) = 2(216 + 96 + 144) = 2*456 = 912 cm². Each small cube has a surface area of 6*(4)^2 = 96 cm². The ratio of small cube to original is 96:912 = 2:19, so option A is correct. Other options incorrectly calculate surface areas or ratios.

Mean proportion implies x/42 = 42/294. Cross-multiplying gives x*294 = 42*42, so x = (42*42)/294 = 1764/294 = 6. Option D is correct. Other options result from incorrect proportion setup or calculation.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Discount, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

To find what percentage B's marks are of A's, divide B's marks by A's marks and multiply by 100. Calculation: (50/75)*100 = 66.67%. This matches option B. Common mistake: Dividing A by B instead, which would incorrectly give 150%.

Let the filling rates of the two pipes be 1/100 and 1/25 per minute, and the emptying rate be -1/x. Combined rate is 1/40. Equation: 1/100 + 1/25 - 1/x = 1/40. Solving gives x = 40. So, the emptying pipe alone takes 40 minutes, option C.

Arrange the points in order: 2,5,7,8,10,10,10,11,12,14,17,18,24,25,27. With 15 data points, the median is the 8th term, which is 11. Option B is correct. The other choices are other values in the sequence.

Let incomes be 5x and 8x. Savings are 75,000 each, so expenditures are 5x - 75,000 and 8x - 75,000. Given expenditure ratio 2:4 = 1:2. Setting up equations: (5x - 75000)/(8x - 75000) = 1/2. Solving gives x = 37,500. Ashish's income is 5x = 187,500, option B.

Total cost for 52 books: 1,120 * 52 = 58,240. Total cost for 47 books: 910 * 47 = 42,770. Total books: 52 + 47 = 99. Total cost: 58,240 + 42,770 = 101,010. Average price: 101,010 / 99 ≈ 20.51, option D.

P and Q's combined rate is 1/12 per hour. P's rate is 1/18. So Q's rate is 1/12 - 1/18 = 1/36 per hour. To fill 1/4 cistern, time = (1/4)/(1/36) = 9 hours, option C.

Key point: setting up equations based on the given ratio after deductions. Let the shares of Rahul, Monika, and Yuvraj be R, M, and Y respectively. After deducting 36, 22, and 29, the remaining amounts are in the ratio 17:7:16. This gives (R-36)/(M-22) = 17/7 and (M-22)/(Y-29) = 7/16. Solving these equations along with R + M + Y = 1287 will yield the actual share of Monika. The correct option fits because it satisfies all conditions when calculated step-by-step, while other choices do not align with the derived values.

The overall profit is calculated by considering all transactions. The man buys the sofa for 24,000, spends 3,000 on repairs, sells it for 30,000, buys it back for 28,000, and sells at a loss of 1,200. Total cost price is 24,000 + 3,000 + 28,000 = 55,000. Total selling price is 30,000 + (28,000 - 1,200) = 56,800. Profit = 56,800 - 55,000 = 1,800. Option A is correct as it matches this calculation, while others miscalculate the transactions.

The amount after 2 years is calculated using the formula A = P(1 + r/100)^n. Here, P = 2400, r = 20, n = 2. A = 2400*(1 + 20/100)^2 = 2400*(1.2)^2 = 2400*1.44 = 3456. Option B is correct as it directly matches this calculation, while others use incorrect interest formulas or rates.

Average speed for the entire journey is calculated using the harmonic mean formula: 2ab/(a + b), where a and b are the speeds. Here, a = 52 km/hr, b = 118 km/hr. Average speed = 2*52*118/(52 + 118) = 2*52*118/170 ≈ 72.19 km/hr. Option D is correct as it accurately applies the formula, while others use incorrect methods like arithmetic mean.

Let the car's speed be x km/h. The train's speed is 1.6x km/h. Time taken by the car is 60/x hours, and by the train is 60/(1.6x) + 20/60 hours. Since they reach simultaneously, 60/x = 60/(1.6x) + 1/3. Solving gives x = 67.5 km/h. Option B fits this solution, while others result from incorrect equation setup.

The number must be divisible by 4, 9, and 10, so it must end in 0 (divisible by 10), have the last two digits divisible by 4, and the sum of digits divisible by 9. 648XYZ ends with 0, so Z=0. X + 0 + 6 + 4 + 8 + Y must be divisible by 9. The smallest Y is 0, making X + 0 + 18 = 18, so X=0. So, X + Z = 0 + 0 = 0. Option D is correct, others violate divisibility rules.

Let the granddaughter's current age be x and grandmother's be y. From the first condition: y - 8 = 13(x - 8). From the second: y + 12 = 3(x + 12). Solving these equations: y - 8 = 13x - 104 → y = 13x - 96. Substitute into the second equation: 13x - 96 + 12 = 3x + 36 → 13x - 84 = 3x + 36 → 10x = 120 → x = 12. Then y = 13*12 - 96 = 60. The age difference is 60 - 12 = 48. Option D is correct because it directly calculates the age difference, while other options likely result from miscalculations in forming equations.

First, calculate 24% decrease from 63%: 24% of 63 = 0.24 * 63 = 15.12. Subtract this from 63%: 63 - 15.12 = 47.88%. Option B is correct as it accurately computes the decreased percentage, whereas other options may incorrectly apply the percentage decrease or miscalculate the result.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Mensuration, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Mensuration, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

A has three people to the right, so A is in the 3rd position from the left in a row of six. With one person between A and the correct option, the arrangement would be _ _ A _ C _, placing C in the 5th position. Option C is correct as it satisfies the given conditions, while others misplace the individuals based on the seating logic.

From R, moving left, two people are between R and M, so positions are R _ _ M. D is adjacent to both M and R, so D must be between them: R D M. P is immediately left of R, so order is P R D M. S must occupy the remaining seat, which is between M and P (circular), making S's neighbours P and M. Option D identifies this, while others misinterpret the circular arrangement or adjacency rules.

To solve this, identify odd numbers in the series that are both preceded and followed by odd numbers. The series is: 4 9 8 5 1 6 4 5 9 6 5 3 4 9 6 2 9 4 8 5 1 1 8 4 1 5 7. Check each odd number: 9 (preceded by 4-even, followed by 8-even), 5 (preceded by 8-even), 1 (preceded by 5-odd, followed by 6-even), 5 (preceded by 4-even), 9 (preceded by 5-odd, followed by 6-even), 5 (preceded by 6-even), 3 (preceded by 5-odd, followed by 4-even), 9 (preceded by 4-even), 5 (preceded by 8-even), 1 (preceded by 5-odd, followed by 1-odd), 1 (preceded by 1-odd, followed by 8-even), 5 (preceded by 1-odd, followed by 7-odd). Only the 1 (position 13) and 5 (position 27) meet the criteria, totaling 2 instances. So, option D is correct.

Analyze the statements: All mints are lamps, kites, and jams. Conclusion I: All lamps are jams. This doesn't follow because the relationship between lamps and jams isn't directly established. Conclusion II: Some jams are kites. This follows because all mints are both jams and kites, so some jams must be kites. So, only conclusion II follows, so option D is correct.

Plot Shubham's movements: Starts at A, goes 11 km South, turns right (West) 7 km, right (North) 14 km, right (East) 11 km, right (South) 3 km to P. Net displacement: South 11-14+3 = 0 km, West 7-11 = -4 km (i.e., 4 km East). To return to A from P, he must go 4 km West. Option B is correct.

From the clues: U and D have two people between them. X is rightmost. D and F have one person between them. V is between E and W. Possible arrangement: E, V, W, ..., F, ..., D, ..., U, X. Since V is to the right of E and left of W, and considering other constraints, the number of people between W and E is two. Option D is correct.

Rank from top (56th) and bottom (71st) indicates total students = 56 + 71 - 1 = 126. Subtract 1 to avoid double-counting the student's own position. Option A is correct.

Analyze the given codes: Each letter corresponds to a number based on position (A=1, B=2, etc.). The equation involves operations on these codes. For example, 68 A 2 D 7 B 5 C (25 A 5) B 9 C 30 A 6 = ?. Calculate step-by-step: 68 + (1+2) - (4+7) + (2+5) - (3+25) + (1+5) - (2+9) + (3+30) - (1+6) = 68 +3 -11 +7 -28 +6 -11 +33 -7 = 49. Option C is correct.

Key point: modifying digits based on parity. Original number: 3 2 1 5 6 7 4. Odd digits (3,1,5,7) become 4,2,6,8. Even digits (2,6,4) become 1,5,3. New number: 4 1 2 6 5 8 3. First from left is 4, third from right is 8. Sum: 4 + 8 = 12. However, the options don't include 12. Rechecking: Original digits after modification: 4 (from 3), 1 (from 2), 2 (from 1), 6 (from 5), 5 (from 6), 8 (from 7), 3 (from 4). First from left is 4, third from right is 5 (positions: 7 6 5 4 3 2 1; third from right is position 5: 5). Sum: 4 + 5 = 9. Correct option D.

The given code uses substitution and symbol replacement. Each element in the code corresponds to a letter or number. For example, '�f�'�?�?T�f�?s�,¢' translates to a specific pattern. The question mark likely represents a missing element in the equation. By analyzing the given codes and their substitutions, the correct replacement maintains the pattern's consistency. The correct answer is derived by applying the same substitution rules to the missing element, ensuring the equation's balance. Option B fits the established pattern.

The pattern involves letter and symbol substitution with positional shifts. NJL to OKM and CYA to DZB show each letter increments by 1 (N→O, J→K, L→M) and (C→D, Y→Z, A→B). Similarly, the code for 'f' and symbols follow a consistent shift. Applying this to the options, only option D maintains the incremental pattern for both letters and symbols, ensuring the analogy's consistency.

The series decreases by 7 each time: 84 - 7 = 77, 77 - 7 = 70, 70 - 7 = 63, 63 - 7 = 56, and so on. The missing number is 63, corresponding to option D.

Total people: 54. Junaid is 21st from the left, so his position is 21. Sourav is 12th from the right, so his position is 54 - 12 + 1 = 43. People between them: 43 - 21 - 1 = 21. Correct option B.

The pattern involves shifting letters backward in the alphabet. V→O (back 9), H→A (back 7), E→X (back 21), P→I (back 9). Similarly, T→M (back 9), F→Y (back 7), C→V (back 21), N→G (back 9). Applying this to YKHS: Y→R (back 9), K→D (back 7), H→A (back 7), S→L (back 9). The correct code is RDAL, option B.

Key point: identifying the odd one out based on alphabetical order. C (HLP) because the other options (TXZ, RVX, LPR) follow a pattern where each letter is three places ahead of the previous one in the alphabet (e is the answer.g., T to X is +3, X to Z is +3). HLP breaks this pattern as H to L is +4, not +3. This distinction eliminates option C as the outlier.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Number Operations, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The code language establishes relationships: 'A is the mother of B' and 'A is the brother of B' indicate familial bonds. The task is to identify how C is related to R. Analyzing the codes, 'C # N' and 'K % T + R' suggest C is the mother of R, as the codes mirror the mother relationship structure. The correct answer is C, as it aligns with the 'mother' code pattern, while other options misrepresent the familial ties.

The statements provided are 'All forks are kettles' and 'Some forks are spoons'. Conclusion (I) 'Some kettles are spoons' is valid because if some forks are spoons and all forks are kettles, then some kettles must be spoons. Conclusion (II) 'All spoons are forks' does not follow because the statements only indicate a partial overlap between forks and spoons, not that all spoons are forks. So, only conclusion (I) follows, so option D is correct.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The relationship between GBCI and YTUA is based on the English alphabetical order. For each letter in GBCI, the corresponding letter in YTUA is determined by moving a certain number of positions forward or backward. Analyzing the shift: G(7) to Y(25) is +18, B(2) to T(20) is +18, C(3) to U(21) is +18, I(9) to A(1) is -8 (or +18 with wrap-around from Z to A). However, a consistent shift of +18 applies to the first three letters, and the last letter might follow a different rule or wrap-around. For AVWC to SNOU: A(1) to S(19) is +18, V(22) to N(14) is -8 (or +18-26= -8), W(23) to O(15) is -8, C(3) to U(21) is +18. The pattern seems inconsistent, but focusing on the first letters and a possible shift of +18 for the first three letters and adjusting for the last, the relationship might involve moving 18 positions forward for the first three letters and a different shift for the last. Applying this to CXYE: C(3) +18 = U(21), X(24) +18 = 42, which exceeds 26, so 42-26=16 (P), Y(25)+18=43-26=17 (Q), E(5)+18=23 (W). So, CXYE relates to UPQW, so option B is correct.

To solve this, track Hitesh's movements on a grid. Starting at A, he goes east 62 km, then left (north) 36 km, left (west) 78 km, left (south) 71 km, and finally left (east) 16 km. Calculate his final position relative to A: East-West displacement = 62 - 78 +16 = 0 km. North-South displacement = 36 -71 = -35 km (35 km south). To return, he must go 35 km north. Option D is correct because it states 35 km north, matching the calculated displacement. Other options have incorrect distances or directions.

The pattern involves letters moving backward in the alphabet. For KOT: K(11)-O(15)-T(20), each letter increases by 4. WAE: W(23)-A(1)-E(5), which breaks the pattern (A is not 4 steps back from W). ZDI: Z(26)-D(4)-I(9), each decreases by 22, then increases by 5, not consistent. HLQ: H(8)-L(12)-Q(17), each increases by 4. So, WAE does not fit the increasing pattern seen in others. Option B is correct as the odd one out.

Analyze the series: DEA 48, CDZ 55, BCY 62, ABX 69. The letters show a pattern of moving one step back in the alphabet for each position (D->C->B->A, E->D->C->B, A->Z->Y->X). The numbers increase by 7 each time (48+7=55, 55+7=62, 62+7=69). Following this, the next number is 69+7=76. The letters should be Z (from A moving back), A (from B moving back), W (from X moving back). So, ZAW 76 fits. Option A is correct.

The series is 15, 22, 36, 57, 85. Calculate the differences: 22-15=7, 36-22=14, 57-36=21, 85-57=28. The differences themselves increase by 7 each time (7, 14, 21, 28). The next difference should be 28+7=35. Add to the last term: 85+35=120. Option D is correct.

The series alternates two patterns: 412, 408, 404 (decreasing by 4) and 420, 424, 428 (increasing by 4). The next number in the decreasing sequence is 404-4=400. Option B is correct.

List unique single-digit numbers from the series: 9,3,5,7,2,4,6,1,8. Numbers divisible by 3 are 9,3,6. There are three such numbers. Option A is correct.

Key point: pattern recognition in coding. The question provides a code where 'never judge people' translates to a specific code, and 'don't ask people' translates to another. The repeated phrase 'people' corresponds to 'uf' in the code. Observing the codes, 'people' is associated with 'uf' in both instances, confirming option A. Other options (gu, ha, td) are parts of the code but don't directly correspond to 'people' in the given examples.

The task is to identify odd numbers that are both preceded and followed by odd numbers. Scanning the series: 2 1 7 9 4 5 3 4 4 1 8 2 2 4 4 9 7 6 9 9 4 6 2 9 9 8 7. Checking each odd number: 7 (preceded by 1, followed by 9) fits. 9 (preceded by 7, followed by 4) doesn't. 5 (preceded by 4, followed by 3) doesn't. 3 (preceded by 5, followed by 4) doesn't. 9 (preceded by 4, followed by 7) doesn't. 7 (preceded by 9, followed by 6) doesn't. 9 (preceded by 9, followed by 4) doesn't. Only one instance (7) meets the criteria, so option D is correct.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Alphabet Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Analyzing the given pairs: 19 to 35. The operation involves 19*2 - 3 = 35. Similarly, 28*2 - 3 = 53. Applying this to options: 36*2 - 3 = 69 (option A), which fits. Other options don't satisfy the operation: 73*2-3=143≠145, 85*2-3=167≠166, 42*2-3=81≠85. So, option A is correct.

The Yuva Puraskar is a prestigious award for young writers. Parvati Tirkey won it in 2025 for her poetry collection 'Phir Ugna'. This fact directly links to option B. Other authors are not associated with this specific award and work, eliminating options A, C, and D.

The DRDO's announcement of the Pinaka rocket's development with a 120 km range was made at Aero India 2025, a major defence exhibition. This event is a key platform for such announcements, so option D is correct. Other events (Defence Expo, Aero Expo, International Defence Conference) are either not the correct venue or not specifically associated with this announcement.

Option B is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on International Events, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This checks India's rank in the SDG Index as per the 2025 report. The correct answer, C (99), indicates India's first entry into the top 100 nations. Option A (74) and B (85) are incorrect as they do not reflect the reported rank. Option D (98) is close but not the exact figure provided in the 2025 report. Understanding the context of sustainable development goals and their annual rankings is crucial here.

Option B is marked correct. For this Economics question on Union Budget, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This question assesses knowledge of Karnataka's policy changes in 2025 regarding housing reservations for religious minorities. The correct answer, B (15%), reflects the increase from 10%. Options A (18%) and D (20%) exceed the announced percentage, while C (12%) is lower than the actual increase. Recognizing state-specific policy updates is key to answering such questions accurately.

The question focuses on the number of Khelo India Centres established for grassroots sports development. The correct answer, A (1045), matches the reported figure. Options B (936), C (1000), and D (950) are incorrect as they do not correspond to the official count of KICs. Familiarity with flagship sports schemes and their implementation numbers is essential here.

This checks organizations involved in India's Gaganyaan mission. B (Godrej Aerospace) is supported by the delivery of the human-rated Vikas engine in November 2025. Option A (Larsen & Toubro) and C (Hindustan Aeronautics Limited) are prominent in defense and aerospace but not specifically for this delivery. Option D (Bharat Dynamics Limited) focuses on missiles and systems, not engine delivery for Gaganyaan.

Key point: the identification of the four Labour Codes implemented in India. The correct answer is D, 'Code on Education, 2021', because the four Labour Codes are the Code on Wages, 2019; Industrial Relations Code, 2020; Code on Social Security, 2020; and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020. Education is not a part of these labour codes, making option D the odd one out. Options A, B, and C are all actual codes, so they are incorrect.

This checks recent state-level events. D, Neiphiu Rio, who is the Chief Minister of Nagaland is the answer. The inauguration of a football stadium in the state would typically be done by the Chief Minister. Options A (Conrad Sangma, Meghalaya CM), B (N. Biren Singh, Manipur CM), and C (Temjen Imna Along, Nagaland Deputy CM) are incorrect as they do not hold the office of CM of Nagaland.

Option A is marked correct. For this Economics question on Monetary Policy, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This question assesses awareness of national events. C, Visakhapatnam is the answer. The 28th National Conference on e-Governance was hosted there in September 2025. Options A (New Delhi) and B (Bengaluru) are common hosts for such events but not in this case. Option D (Hyderabad) might be a distractor due to its prominence in IT, but it was not the host this time.

The question is about a major sports event location. B, Allianz Arena, Munich is the answer. The 2025 Champions League final was held there. Option A (Santiago Bernabéu, Madrid) might confuse due to Real Madrid's prominence, but it was not the 2025 host. Options C (Camp Nou, Barcelona) and D (Wembley Stadium, London) are notable stadiums but not the correct venues for this specific event.

Option D is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Corporate Appointments, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

Key point: recent UN membership updates. Palestine was granted non-member observer state status in 2012 but sought full membership. In 2025, the UN General Assembly urged its admission as the 194th member, aligning with option C. Vatican City (A) is a non-member observer state, South Sudan (B) joined in 2011 as the 193rd member, and Kosovo (D) isn't a UN member due to disputes over its sovereignty. This distinction clarifies why C is correct.

This checks recent Guinness World Records from India. Andhra Pradesh tribal students (A) set the record for 108 Surya Namaskars with over 22,000 participants, emphasizing large-scale group achievements. Other options, like Gujarat volunteers (B) or Maharashtra yoga groups (C), might host events but lack this specific record. Rajasthan school children (D) aren't linked to this feat, making A the clear choice.

This assesses awareness of Chhattisgarh's administrative divisions and recent events. Bastar (C) is a division prone to floods and Naxalite activities, making it a focus for state aid. Surguja (A) and Bilaspur (B) are other divisions but weren't highlighted in the 2025 floods context. Raipur (D) is the capital division, less associated with such specific relief efforts. So, C is justified.

Hindi Journalism Day (Patrakarita Diwas) commemorates the first Hindi newspaper, 'Udant Martand,' published on 30 May 1826 by Pandit Bakhur Prasad. Option A aligns with this historical date. Other options, like 5 May (B) or 18 February (C), relate to Press Freedom Day or other events, not Hindi journalism. This factual recall confirms A as correct.

The question focuses on Indian Armed Forces' cyber security efforts. 'Cyber Suraksha' (B) was launched in 2025 to simulate threats and enhance secure practices, fitting the description. 'Raksha Netra' (A) and 'Sainya SecureNet' (C) aren't recognized as major cyber exercises. 'Cyber Kavach' (D) might be a distractor, not the specific 2025 initiative, solidifying B as the answer.

The Aravalli Green Wall Project aims to expand green cover to combat desertification (A), addressing environmental degradation in the Aravalli range. Options like vertical gardens in Mumbai (B) or Himalayan national parks (C) are unrelated to the project's scope. Embankments in Punjab (D) focus on flood control, not desertification, making A the key aim and correct choice.

Option A is marked correct. For this Physics question on Laws of Motion, revise the basic principle and check which option matches the definition, process, or example asked in the question.

The ELV Rules focus on sustainable vehicle management. Option C is correct because Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a key aspect, requiring manufacturers to manage end-of-life vehicles through certified scrapping facilities. Option A is incorrect as the rules apply domestically. B is false since recycling isn't mandatory for all vehicles, and D contradicts the rules' intent to regulate salvaged vehicles, ensuring environmental compliance.

Given HCF = 23, the numbers are 23a and 23b, where a and b are coprime. Their sum: 23(a + b) = 161 → a + b = 7. Possible coprime pairs (a,b) are (1,6), (2,5), (3,4), making 3 pairs: (23,138), (46,115), (69,92). Option C states 3 pairs. The other choices may miscount pairs or misunderstand HCF application.

A compound molecule consists of different elements chemically bonded. Option A (H and O) represents water (Hâ''O), a compound. Options B (O), C (N), and D (He) are elements, not compounds, as they consist of single atom types.