RRB NTPC UG Previous Year Paper 20 Aug 2025 - 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM

The Motilal Nehru National Institute of Technology (MNNIT) is a prominent educational institution. This checks Indian cities and their notable institutions. Prayagraj (B) because MNNIT is located there is the answer. Kanpur (A) is home to IIT Kanpur, not MNNIT. Lucknow (C) and Varanasi (D) are known for other institutions, making them incorrect.

Article 244(2) of the Indian Constitution pertains to the administration of tribal areas. The Sixth Schedule specifically applies to certain northeastern states. Option D (Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram) is correct as these states fall under the Sixth Schedule. Option B lists states partially covered by the Fifth Schedule or other provisions, not exclusively the Sixth Schedule. Options A and C include states not relevant to the Sixth Schedule.

The question assesses knowledge of major mountain ranges and their locations. The Andes (B) is the correct answer as it is the primary mountain range in South America. The Alps (A) are in Europe, the Rockies (C) in North America, and the Vosges (D) in France, eliminating them as options.

The question focuses on recent literary works. Anuradha Roy (B) released 'The Himalaya in a Small House' in 2025, making her the correct choice. Amitav Ghosh (A) and Ruskin Bond (C) are known for other works, and Namita Gokhale (D) has not been associated with this specific book, ruling out other options.

The World Bank loan mentioned relates to healthcare upgrades in an Indian state. Kerala (C) received the loan, as confirmed by recent news. Andhra Pradesh (A), Gujarat (B), and Rajasthan (D) were not recipients of this specific loan, making them incorrect choices.

According to the 2011 Census, Goa (C) is the most urbanised state in India, with a high percentage of its population living in urban areas. Punjab (A) and Haryana (D) have significant urban populations but not as high as Goa's. Option B is invalid due to a typographical error ('Kerala Blackbook'), which does not correspond to a real state.

The Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (SGRY) primarily focuses on rural areas, aiming to provide employment through food-for-work programs. This scheme merged earlier initiatives like the EGS and SGRY, targeting rural development. Option C is correct because the scheme's name itself includes 'Grameen' (rural). Industrial (A) and urban (D) areas are not the target, and coastal areas (B) are irrelevant here.

The Partition of India in 1947 was mainly due to deepening communal tensions between Hindus and Muslims, exacerbated by political disagreements, particularly the demand for a separate Muslim state (Pakistan). Option D addresses these factors. While social and economic differences (A) existed, they were not the primary cause. Language disputes (B) were not central, and British administrative failure (C) was a contributing factor but not the core reason.

Option B is marked correct. For this Physics question on Units and Measurements, revise the basic principle and check which option matches the definition, process, or example asked in the question.

Lord Curzon enacted the Indian Universities Act in 1904 to tighten government control over universities, standardizing education and limiting autonomy. Option C is correct. The years 1886 (A) and 1889 (B) relate to earlier educational reforms or institutions, while 1897 (D) is not associated with this specific act. Curzon's tenure (1899-1905) confirms the 1904 timeline.

The Community Development Programme (CDP) was launched on 2 October 1952, inspired by Gandhi Jayanti, to promote rural development through community participation. Option A is correct. The other dates correspond to different events: 1950 (B) relates to the Constitution's adoption, 1951 (C) to the first Census post-independence, and 1947 (D) to independence itself, none of which match the CDP's launch.

As of May 2025, Harbhajan Singh, the former cricketer, represents the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) in the Rajya Sabha. Option D is correct. While he previously had ties with other parties, his current affiliation as per recent updates is AAP. The BJP (A), SAD (B), and Congress (C) are incorrect based on the latest political developments and his publicly declared party membership.

The Sarkaria Commission, established in 1983, focused on Centre-State relations. It recommended measures to strengthen cooperative federalism, emphasizing collaboration between the central and state governments. Unitary federalism (A) centralizes power, which contradicts the commission's aim. Fiscal federalism (C) deals with financial aspects, not the structural focus here. Competitive federalism (D) involves states competing, which isn't the primary goal. So, cooperative federalism (B) aligns with the commission's intent to enhance collaboration.

The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act (RERA) was enacted in 2016 to address issues like delayed projects and lack of transparency. The 'Blackbook' reference in option A likely indicates the year 2016, as RERA was passed in that year. Options B (2012), C (2018), and D (2020) are incorrect because the Act was implemented in 2016, making A the correct choice.

The Western Coastal Plain lies between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea. The Eastern Coastal Plain (B) borders the Bay of Bengal, not the Arabian Sea. The Deccan Plateau (C) is inland, and the Malwa Plateau (D) is part of the central highlands. This geographical positioning makes option A the correct answer.

Neeraj Chopra's throw beyond 90 metres at the Doha Diamond League 2025 made him the first Indian to achieve this feat. While the world record (A) might not have been broken, surpassing 90 metres for the first time by an Indian (B) is historic. Options C and D are incorrect as no prior Indian athlete had officially crossed this mark before Chopra.

During Sher Shah Suri's rule, the Shiqqdar was responsible for maintaining law and order in villages. The Qazi (B) handled judicial and religious matters, the Fotedar (C) managed revenue collection, and the Muqaddam (D) was a village headman. The Shiqqdar's role in law enforcement makes option A correct.

Liberalisation in 1991 aimed to reduce government control, particularly by eliminating the industrial licensing system (Licence Raj) and quota system (D). Agricultural subsidies (A) and public sector employment (B) were not the primary targets. Banking services (C) saw reforms but weren't the main focus of liberalisation, which prioritised industrial deregulation.

The answer depends on an international observance on 3 March 2025 with a specific theme related to wildlife conservation finance. World Wildlife Day (A) is the answer. This day is celebrated annually on 3 March to raise awareness about wildlife conservation. The theme aligns with the United Nations' focus on sustainable development and biodiversity. World Environment Day (B) is observed on 5 June, Earth Day (C) on 22 April, and International Day for Biological Diversity (D) on 22 May, making them incorrect due to date mismatches.

The Kailasa Temple at Ellora, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, was constructed during the Rashtrakuta dynasty (C). This dynasty ruled parts of western and central India from the 8th to the 10th century. The Cholas (A) were prominent in southern India later, the Chalukyas (B) preceded the Rashtrakutas in the Deccan, and the Pallavas (D) were known for their contributions in Tamil Nadu, particularly at Mahabalipuram. The architectural style and historical records confirm the Rashtrakutas as the builders.

Option A is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Defence and Security, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

The oath of office to the Governor is administered by the Chief Justice of the High Court (D) of the respective state, as per Article 159 of the Indian Constitution. The President (B) appoints the Governor but does not administer the oath. The Chief Minister (A) is the head of the state government but does not perform this constitutional duty. The Vice-President (C) has no role in state-level oath ceremonies, making option D the correct choice.

Vinegar (A) is commonly used to preserve pickles due to its acidic nature, which inhibits the growth of bacteria and other microorganisms. Sugar (B) can act as a preservative by reducing water activity but is not typically the primary agent in pickling. Baking soda (C) is a base and would not preserve food in the same manner. Yeast (D) is used in fermentation but would spoil pickles rather than preserve them, so option A is correct.

The correct combination is ASCII, which stands for American Standard Code for Information Interchange (C). ASCII is a character encoding standard used in computers to represent text. Option C accurately describes its full form and application. LAN (A) refers to a Local Area Network, not a continental network. CD (D) stands for Compact Disk, unrelated to text encoding. The description in B about converting images to code is incorrect, as ASCII is specifically for text encoding, not image conversion.

This checks the Delhi Sultanate's expansion under Muhammad bin Tughlaq. After the fall of the Kakatiya Kingdom, he captured the Vijayanagara rulers Bukka and Harihara. Alauddin Khalji (B) preceded him and focused on the Deccan, while Balban (C) and Firoz Shah Tughlaq (D) were not involved in this specific event. Key point: the timeline and territorial conquests of Delhi Sultans, emphasizing Tughlaq's southern campaigns.

This question assesses awareness of recent Indian football tournaments. The 2025 Kalinga Super Cup winner, FC Goa (A), must be recalled. The other choices include prominent ISL teams like ATK Mohun Bagan (C) and Bengaluru FC (D), but the correct answer hinges on memorizing the specific 2025 outcome, highlighting the need to track annual sports events for such exams.

Option B is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Defence Technology, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This tests familiarity with Indian think tanks and their initiatives. NITI Aayog (A) organized the 2025 WSDS, differentiating it from TERI (B), which focuses on environment but didn't host this summit. CSE (C) and RIS (D) are unrelated to this event. The explanation emphasizes recognizing the roles of key institutions in sustainable development conferences, a recurring current affairs theme.

The question checks understanding of common Windows shortcut keys. Alt + Tab (A) is used to switch between open applications, contrasting with Alt + F4 (B) for closing windows, and unrelated options like Alt + Del (C) or Alt + Ins (D). Key point: memorizing essential keyboard shortcuts, a fundamental aspect of computer application exams.

This assesses knowledge of recent Indian state elections. The 2025 Delhi Assembly outcome saw the BJP (A) winning a majority, contrasting with AAP's previous wins (B). The other choices like a hung assembly (C) or Congress victory (D) are incorrect based on 2025 results. The explanation stresses tracking political developments and election outcomes, vital for current affairs preparation.

The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution specifically addresses the administration of Scheduled Areas and the welfare of Scheduled Tribes. Option B is correct because it directly mentions these two elements. Option A refers to the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), Option C relates to the Eighth Schedule (Official Languages), and Option D pertains to the Seventh Schedule (Union-State Lists). Understanding the distinct focus of each Schedule is crucial here.

Dora Bisoi and Chakra Bisoi were key figures in the Khond uprisings in Ghumusar, Odisha, protesting against British policies and economic exploitation. Option A is correct as Ghumusar is historically associated with these tribal revolts. Other options (B, C, D) are regions unrelated to the Khond resistance, making them incorrect. Remembering the linkage between specific leaders and their areas of revolt aids in tackling such questions.

In 2024, the Banni grasslands were approved by the CZA as India's first cheetah conservation breeding centre. Option D is correct as it accurately reflects this recent development. Options A, B, and C are prominent wildlife areas but not linked to cheetah breeding centres, eliminating them. Staying updated with recent conservation initiatives is essential for such current affairs questions.

Section 498A of the IPC specifically deals with cruelty by a husband or his relatives against a woman, often related to dowry demands. Option C is correct as it precisely states this provision. Option D refers to Section 304B (Dowry Death), while Option B relates to the Domestic Violence Act, 2005. Distinguishing between these related but distinct legal provisions is key to answering correctly.

In March 2025, Armenia and Azerbaijan signed a peace treaty, marking a significant development in their longstanding conflict. Option A is correct as it identifies Azerbaijan as the country involved. Other options (B, C, D) are not parties to this specific treaty, making them incorrect. Keeping abreast of recent geopolitical events helps in tackling such questions accurately.

Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Equality before the Law, ensuring equal treatment for all individuals. Option C is correct as it directly references this right. Option D pertains to Article 21 (Protection of Life and Personal Liberty), while Options A and B relate to other Fundamental Rights (Article 24 and Articles 25-28, respectively). Understanding the specific rights covered under each Article is vital for such questions.

Key point: identifying the most abundant protein in the biosphere. RuBisCO (Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase) is the correct answer because it is a crucial enzyme in the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis, found in all photosynthetic organisms, making it the most abundant. Collagen, while abundant in animals, is limited to metazoans. GLUT-4 and Myosin are specific to certain functions in organisms and not as universally prevalent as RuBisCO.

VARUNA is a bilateral naval exercise between India and France. This exercise aims to strengthen maritime cooperation and interoperability between the two nations' navies. The UK and US are involved in other exercises like MALABAR or INDRA, while South Korea participates in different bilateral engagements, making France the correct choice.

The Peninsular Plateau rivers are distinct from Himalayan rivers. The Krishna river originates in the Western Ghats and flows eastward, characteristic of peninsular rivers. Lohit and Dibang are tributaries of the Brahmaputra, a Himalayan river, while the Beas is part of the Indus river system in the north. So, the Krishna river is the correct answer.

As of the given date, the Zojila Tunnel is recognized as Asia's longest tunnel. Located in Jammu and Kashmir, it surpasses the Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel in length. The Tike and Natuwadi tunnels are not as long or prominent in recent records, confirming Zojila as the correct choice.

Let the numbers be a and b. Given a + b = 80 and LCM(a, b) = 558. We need to find a and b such that their product is LCM(a, b) * GCD(a, b). Factoring 558 = 2 * 3^2 * 31, and knowing a + b = 80, we test pairs that multiply to a multiple of 558. The pair 18 and 62 adds to 80, and LCM(18, 62) = 558, so option C is correct.

The cost price of 56 tube lights is calculated first. However, the provided text contains encoding errors, making the specific numbers and options unreadable. Typically, profit is calculated as (Selling Price of Remaining Items) - (Cost Price of All Items). Without clear values, the method involves determining the cost per unit, total cost, then subtracting the cost of broken items, and comparing the remaining selling price to find profit. The correct option (B) would reflect this accurate calculation once the values are properly decoded.

To find the smallest number to add to 57846 for divisibility by 58, divide 57846 by 58. 57846 ÷ 58 = 997 with a remainder of 32. Since 58 - 32 = 26, adding 26 would make it divisible, but this option isn't listed. However, the item asks for the smallest number from the options. Checking each option: 57846 + 38 = 57884. 57884 ÷ 58 = 998 exactly, so 38 is correct. The other options don't yield exact divisions.

The question appears to involve simplifying an algebraic expression with possible encoding issues. The correct option B shows the expression 116x + 110, which likely results from combining like terms or distributing coefficients correctly. Without the full original expression due to encoding errors, the key point is algebraic simplification. The correct answer follows accurate term combination, while other choices may incorrectly apply operations or coefficients.

Train A takes 7 hours (8:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m.) and Train B takes 5 hours (10:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m.). Let the distance between M and N be D. Speed of A = D/7, Speed of B = D/5. Relative speed = D/7 + D/5 = 12D/35. Time to meet = D / (12D/35) = 35/12 hours ≈ 2.9167 hours = 2 hours 55 minutes. Since Train A starts at 8:00 a.m. and Train B at 10:00 a.m., in 2 hours by 10:00 a.m., Train A has covered 2*(D/7). The remaining distance is D - 2D/7 = 5D/7. Combined, they cover 12D/35 per hour. Time to meet after 10:00 a.m. = (5D/7) / (12D/35) = (5/7)*(35/12) = 25/12 hours ≈ 2.0833 hours = 2 hours 5 minutes. Total time from 8:00 a.m. is 2 hours + 2 hours 5 minutes = 4 hours 5 minutes, which is 12:05 p.m.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Arithmetic Operations, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Volume of a sphere = (4/3)πr³. Diameter is 10m, so radius r = 5m. Using π = 3.141: Volume = (4/3)*3.141*(5)³ = (4/3)*3.141*125 = (4/3)*392.625 = 523.5 cubic metres. Option D matches this calculation. Other options likely result from incorrect radius, formula, or π value.

5 men complete work in 18 days, so 1 man's work = 1/(18*5) = 1/90 per day. 9 women complete it in 5 days, so 1 woman's work = 1/(9*5) = 1/45 per day. 3 men + 3 women = 3/90 + 3/45 = 1/30 + 2/30 = 3/30 = 1/10 per day. So, total days = 10. Option C is correct. The other choices may miscalculate individual rates or sum them incorrectly.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Percentage, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Numerical Operations, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let the numbers be x and x+1. Their product is x(x+1) = 6. Solving x² + x - 6 = 0 gives x = 2 (since x must be positive). So, the greater number is 3. Option B is correct because it directly results from solving the quadratic equation, and other options don't satisfy the equation.

Let the son's age 7 years ago be y. The father's age then was 2y + 13. Now, their ages are y + 7 and 2y + 20. We need to find when the father will be twice the son's age: 2y + 20 + t = 2(y + 7 + t). Solving gives t = 6. Option B is correct as it satisfies the equation, and other options don't fit the derived time frame.

Using the compound interest formula A = P(1 + r/100)^n, where P = 2500, A = 2601, and r = 2. Substituting values gives 2601 = 2500(1.02)^n. Solving for n yields n = 2. Option C is correct because the calculation confirms that 2 years of compound interest result in the given amount, and other options don't satisfy the equation.

Let the first number be x and the second be y. Given 0.36x = (4/7)y, rearranging gives x/y = (4/7)/0.36 = 100/63. So, the ratio is 100:63. Option B is correct as it matches the derived ratio, and other options don't simplify to the same proportion.

The average of the first n odd natural numbers is n. Here, n = 152, so the average is 152. The formula for the sum of the first n odd numbers is n², so the average is sum/n = n²/n = n. This directly matches option D. Other options either add or subtract 0.5 or 1, which are common other choices but incorrect.

Let the marked price be M. After a 13% discount, the selling price is 87% of M, which equals 348. So, 0.87M = 348. Solving for M: M = 348 / 0.87 = 400. This matches option A. Other options likely result from calculation errors, such as dividing by 0.13 instead of 0.87 or miscalculating the percentage.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Profit Sharing, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Original speed = 95 km/hr, time = 10 hr. Distance = 95 * 10 = 950 km. To cover 950 km in 5 hr, required speed = 950 / 5 = 190 km/hr. Option D is correct. Other options are incorrect calculations, such as doubling the speed (190 vs. 182 or 187) or miscalculating the distance.

Investment ratio A:B:C = 61:43:90. Total parts = 61 + 43 + 90 = 194. Total profit = 2,910. Value per part = 2,910 / 194 = 15. B's share = 43 * 15 = 645, C's share = 90 * 15 = 1,350. Difference = 1,350 - 645 = 705. This matches option B. Other options may result from incorrect ratio calculations or miscounting parts.

Curved surface area of cylinder = 2πrh = 1800 cm², length (h) = 52 cm. Solve for radius r: r = 1800 / (2π*52) = 1800 / (104π) ≈ 1800 / 326.72 ≈ 5.51 cm. Option C is correct. Other options likely result from using diameter instead of radius, calculation errors, or incorrect π approximations.

The trade discount is calculated as 10% of the total cost. The cost of 100 units at �f�?s�,¹50 each is 100 * 50 = 5000. The trade discount amount is 10% of 5000 = 500. Option A states 500, while other options miscalculate the percentage or apply additional discounts.

Simple Interest (SI) = (P * R * T)/100, where P = 400, R = 8, T = 4.5. SI = (400 * 8 * 4.5)/100 = 144. Option C is correct. Other options likely result from incorrect decimal handling or miscalculations.

Prime numbers between 476 and 485 are checked individually. 479 is the only prime in this range. Option C is correct. Other options miscount primes, possibly including non-prime numbers like 477 or 483.

To check divisibility by 13, use the rule or direct division. 788973289 ÷ 13 = 60613, so it's divisible by 13. Option A is correct. Other options (12, 18, 7) do not divide the number evenly.

Total price = 3x + 5x + 7x = 15x. Average = 16,050 = 15x/3 → x = 3,210. Cheapest item is 3x = 9,630. Option C is correct. Other options incorrectly calculate the ratio shares or average.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Direction Sense, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The question involves decoding relationships using a specific code language. determined by analyzing the given codes and their corresponding relationships is the answer. For E $ F @ G, the code indicates E is the brother of F, and F is the wife of G. This makes E the son-in-law of G, but since the options don't include son-in-law, the focus is on the direct relation stated in the code. Key point: to recognize that the brother relationship (option A) directly applies to E and F, making 'Brother' the correct choice. Other options like Mother, Father, or Sister do not fit the coded relationship provided.

The question requires translating a phrase into a code language based on given examples. The phrase 'window' corresponds to the code 'mb' as seen in the example where 'door or window' is coded as 'mb tb jb'. The correct option is 'mb' (D), as it directly matches the code for 'window' in the provided examples. Other options like 'lk', 'tb', or 'fb' are associated with different words in the examples and do not fit the translation for 'window'.

The seating arrangement problem involves determining the position of individuals based on given conditions. Key steps include placing K and G with five people between them, H immediately to the left of G, and S one person away from H. Considering the constraints and the left-to-right arrangement, the only feasible order that satisfies all conditions places L third from the left. This involves eliminating other options by testing the conditions systematically, confirming that L (option A) is the correct answer.

The item asks to identify symbols that are immediately preceded by an odd number but not followed by an even number. Analyzing the series from left to right: the symbols are @, $, &, #, and %. Checking each symbol's position: @ is preceded by 8 (even, so excluded), $ is preceded by 9 (odd) and followed by 1 (odd), & is preceded by 1 (odd) but followed by 5 (odd), # is preceded by 7 (odd) and followed by 4 (even, so excluded), and % is preceded by 4 (even, so excluded). So, $ and & meet the criteria, making the correct answer 'Two' (D).

The series progresses as 491, 492, 496, 505, 521, ?. Analyzing the differences: 492 - 491 = 1, 496 - 492 = 4, 505 - 496 = 9, 521 - 505 = 16. The differences are squares of 1, 2, 3, 4. Following this pattern, the next difference should be 25 (5^2), making the next number 521 + 25 = 546. So, the correct answer is '546' (C).

Manoj's movements form a rectangle: 16 km north, 4 km east, 16 km south, and 4 km west. This brings him back to the starting point's east-west line but 16 km south and then 16 km north cancels out, leaving a 4 km east and then 4 km west, which also cancels. However, the final left turn and 4 km drive west means he is 8 km west of point Y (since he initially went 16 km north and ended up 8 km west due to the rectangle's dimensions). The shortest distance to return is 8 km west, so option A is correct.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Alphabetical Coding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Key point: identifying a pattern in letter-cluster pairs. Analyzing the options: A) SV-OQ: S(19) to O(15), V(22) to Q(17); difference of -4 and -5. B) VY-RS: V(22) to R(18), Y(25) to S(19); difference of -4 and -6. C) KN-GI: K(11) to G(7), N(14) to I(9); difference of -4 and -5. D) OR-KM: O(15) to K(11), R(18) to M(13); difference of -4 and -5. The pattern seems to be a difference of -4 and -5 for the first and second letters respectively. Option B has a difference of -4 and -6, breaking the pattern. So, B is the odd one out.

Key point: a mathematical operation between the number pairs. For 27→135: 27×5=135. Similarly, 33×5=165. This confirms the pattern is multiplying by 5. Testing options: A) 19×5=95≠105. B) 29×5=145≠125. C) 22×5=110 (matches). D) 35×5=175≠180. So, Option C follows the pattern.

Key point: analyzing letter-cluster pairs for a common pattern. Examining the options: A) SO-LQ: S(19) to L(12), O(15) to Q(17); difference of -7 and +2. B) MI-FL: M(13) to F(6), I(9) to L(12); difference of -7 and +3. C) VR-OT: V(22) to O(15), R(18) to T(20); difference of -7 and +2. D) PL-IN: P(16) to I(9), L(12) to N(14); difference of -7 and +2. The consistent pattern is a difference of -7 and +2. Option B breaks this with +3, making it the odd one out.

Key point: identifying the pattern in the series: 12, 21, 40, 69, 108, ?. Calculating differences: 21-12=9, 40-21=19, 69-40=29, 108-69=39. The differences are increasing by 10 each time (9, 19, 29, 39). Next difference should be 49. So, 108+49=157. Option B is correct.

Key point: modifying digits based on parity. Original number: 6 7 9 8 2 4 5. Applying operations: Even digits (6,8,2,4) +1 →7,9,3,5. Odd digits (7,9,5) -3 →4,6,2. New digits: 7,4,6,9,3,5,2. Arranged: 2,3,4,5,6,7,9. Highest=9, Second lowest=3. Difference=9-3=6. Option D is correct.

The series alternates between multiplication by 4 and addition of 3: 6×4=24, 24+3=27, 27×4=108, 108+3=111. Following this pattern, the next step is 111×4=444. Option C fits this logic. Options A, B, and D do not follow the established pattern.

From the statements, we know all rectangles are squares and all squares are trapezoids. This creates a hierarchy where rectangles ⊂ squares ⊂ trapezoids. Conclusion I is incorrect because not all trapezoids are rectangles. Conclusion II is correct because some trapezoids (those that are squares) are rectangles. So, only conclusion II follows, so option C is correct.

The relationship involves shifting each letter by a fixed number of positions in the alphabet. For AHJQ to DJMS: A→D (+3), H→J (+2), J→M (+3), Q→S (+2). Applying the same alternating pattern to MPVY: M→P (+3), P→R (+2), V→Y (+3), Y→A (+2). However, the given options and correct answer suggest a different shift pattern. The correct option C (YXHG) indicates a shift of +3, +2, +3, +2 from VVEE: V→Y (+3), V→X (+2), E→H (+3), E→G (+2). This matches the logic of alternating shifts, confirming option C.

The code substitutes each letter with a number representing its position in the alphabet (A=1, B=2, etc.). For example, 'MUTE' becomes 13, 21, 20, 5, which corresponds to the numbers in the given code. The task is to identify the code of 'f'?T'f'?s', which translates to the positions of the letters in 'TOPS' (T=20, O=15, P=16, S=19). However, the correct answer '4' suggests a different substitution rule where each letter's position is summed or manipulated. The exact substitution isn't fully clear, but the correct option B (4) indicates a specific calculation or mapping applied consistently, which isn't explicitly detailed here due to the question's complexity.

We need to find numbers that are both preceded by a symbol and followed by another number. Examining the series: @ is followed by 6 (number) and then 9 (number), so 6 is preceded by @ and followed by 9. Next, # is followed by * (symbol), so no. Then * is followed by + (symbol), no. + is followed by 4 (number) and then 9 (number), so 4 is preceded by + and followed by 9. The % is followed by & (symbol), and & is followed by + (symbol), then + is followed by < (symbol), < is followed by > (symbol), > is followed by ^ (symbol), and ^ is followed by # (symbol). So, only 6 and 4 meet the criteria, making the answer 'Two' (option C).

From the statements, all triangles are rectangles, and all squares are rectangles. This establishes that triangles and squares are subsets of rectangles. Conclusion I is incorrect because there's no direct link between triangles and squares; they could be disjoint within rectangles. Conclusion II is correct because if all squares are rectangles, then some rectangles must be squares. So, only conclusion II follows, so option C is correct.

Key point: modifying digits based on parity. Original number: 9 3 4 2 8 6 5. Even digits (2,4,6,8) are increased by 1: 2→3, 4→5, 6→7, 8→9. Odd digits (3,5,9) are decreased by 2: 3→1, 5→3, 9→7. New number: 7 1 5 3 9 7 3. First from left:7, first from right:3. Sum:7+3=10. Option D is correct as it matches the calculated sum. Other options (7,8,9) are incorrect sums.

From the bottom: V is second, so positions from bottom: _, V, _. Three boxes between V and Y means Y is at position 6 (V at 2, positions 3,4,5 in between). Z is below V, so Z at 1. Q is between Y and R, so Y at 6, Q at 7, R at 8 (invalid as only 7 boxes). Re-evaluate: V at 2, Y at 6 (positions 3,4,5 between). Q between Y and R: Y at 6, Q at 5, R at 4 (contradicts W above Y). Correct arrangement: V(2), Z(1), boxes 3,4,5,6(Y), Q(7). W above Y: W at 3,4,5. X must be in remaining positions. X and Y have two boxes between them (positions 4 and 5). Option A is correct. Other options miscount the gaps.

The logic involves reversing the letters and shifting vowels. ROAM → MORA (reverse), then apply transformations. Each letter pair follows reverse and vowel shift: ROAM→MORA, CRIB→BRCI, so next should be RICB→BCIR. Option A shows FUME→EUMF, which fits the reverse and vowel shift pattern. Other options (GUYS→SUGY, PING→GNIP, SONG→GONS) do not follow the exact transformation logic as they don't maintain the reverse and vowel shift consistency.

G has three boxes below, so G is at position 4 (from bottom). Two boxes between G and F: G at 4, F at 1 (invalid, as G cannot be above F with three boxes below). Correct: G at 4, F at 7 (top). B is above D. E is below A and above C. Possible arrangement (from bottom): _, _, _, G, _, _, F. B above D: B at 5, D at 3. E below A and above C: A at 6, E at 2, C at 1. So boxes above A (at 6) are none, but considering the initial count from bottom, A is at position 6 (second from top), so two boxes above A (positions 7 and possibly others). Option C is correct. Other options miscount the positions.

J to L has three people between, so they are opposite each other (circular table). K and C have three between from C's right, so K is three seats counter-clockwise from C. D is immediate right of K. A is neighbour of C and L. Fixing positions: C and L are adjacent to A, so A is between C and L. J and L are opposite, so J is across from L. K is three seats from C, D next to K. B's position is determined by elimination. Second to the left of B would be A, as B is between A and another. Option C is correct. Other options misplace B's neighbours.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Alphabetical Patterns, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The question involves a number series where symbols are interchanged. Key point: pattern recognition and substitution. 52, which fits the pattern after interchanging the symbols is the answer. The other choices (66, 59, 45) do not align with the modified sequence post-interchange. Calculations involve decoding the symbol substitutions and applying them to the series to find the missing number.

The question requires determining the total number of students in the class based on Hriday's rank from the top and bottom. Key point: understanding positional relationships. The formula used is Total students = Rank from top + Rank from bottom - 1. Applying this, 26 + 38 - 1 = 63. 63, while other choices (64, 62, 61) result from incorrect application of the formula or arithmetic errors is the answer.

The series UWZ, SUX, QSV, OQT follows a pattern of decreasing letters in the alphabet. Each subsequent term decreases by 2 letters for the first and third positions and by 1 letter for the second position. Applying this pattern, the next term after OQT is MOR. MOR, while other choices (MOS, MPR, MPS) break the established pattern is the answer.

The series GMR, AGL, UAF, OUZ involves alternating patterns of letter shifts. Analyzing the shifts, the next term should follow a specific decreasing pattern in the alphabet. IOT, maintaining the pattern consistency is the answer. The other choices (TIO, ITO, TOI) disrupt the sequence's logic.

The question involves decoding a series with symbol substitutions and applying the pattern to find the missing number. Key point: recognizing the substitution rules and applying them correctly. 12, derived from accurately interpreting the symbol interchanges and their impact on the numerical sequence is the answer. The other choices (18, 7, 25) result from misinterpretation of the substitution rules or arithmetic mistakes.

The answer depends on the Article directing the State to promote welfare. Article 38 of the Indian Constitution, under Directive Principles of State Policy, mandates the State to secure a social order for the welfare of the people. Option C is correct. Article 43 (B) relates to living wage and working conditions, not general welfare. Article 47 (D) focuses on prohibition and upliftment of weaker sections, while Article 42 (A) is not a standard constitutional reference.

Let Kevin's speed be v km/hr and Salaj's speed be u km/hr. From the problem: 112/u = 112/v + 3 and 112/(2u) = 112/v - 5. Solving these equations, we find u = 7 km/hr. Option B is correct. Other options do not satisfy both time conditions when substituted back.

The pattern involves rearranging letters in a specific manner. For 'BOAD' to 'OBAD' to 'BADO', the first and last letters swap, then the first two letters swap. Applying this to 'DUCK' yields 'UDCK' and 'DCKU'. Among options, 'FEAN - EFAN - FANE' follows the same swapping logic, making it the correct choice, while others deviate from the established rearrangement rule.

The answer depends on the recipient of the Rammohan Acarya Sanman 2025 for service to rural tribal communities. Parbati Mahato (D) is the answer. This award recognizes contributions to tribal welfare, and Mahato's work aligns with this focus. Medha Patkar (A) is known for environmental activism, Irom Sharmila (B) for protesting against AFSPA, and Aruna Roy (C) for social and political reforms—none specifically tied to the 2025 award mentioned.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Number Series, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.