RRB NTPC UG Previous Year Paper 21 Aug 2025 - 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM

A Punnett square is a tool used to predict the probability of different genotypes and phenotypes that can result from a cross. Option C is correct because it directly addresses these probabilities. Option A refers to genetic linkage, which is related but not the primary purpose of a Punnett square. Option B discusses DNA sequences, which are not predicted by Punnett squares but rather by sequencing techniques. Option D mentions genetic mutations over generations, which involve evolutionary changes not typically modeled by Punnett squares.

Kharavela, the king of Kalinga in the 2nd century B.C., is known for his patronage of Jainism. Option C is correct as historical records, including the Hathigumpha inscription, highlight his reign and religious affiliations. Option A, Samprati, was a Mauryan emperor who supported Jainism but ruled later. Option B, Bindusara, was a Mauryan ruler and father of Ashoka, not associated with Kalinga's Jainism. Option D, Ashoka, famously converted to Buddhism after the Kalinga war, not Jainism.

The foundation stone of the Bageshwar Dham Medical and Science Research Institute in Madhya Pradesh was laid by Narendra Modi. As the Prime Minister of India, he often inaugurates significant national projects, making Option D the correct choice. Other options, such as state leaders or political figures (A, B, C), are not associated with this specific event, emphasizing the need to recognize key national figures in current affairs.

Srabani Nanda's comeback with a silver medal in the 2025 Asian Athletics Championships is a notable achievement. Option C is correct as it highlights her recent performance in the women's relay event. Other options, such as Hima Das (A) and Dutee Chand (D), are prominent Indian sprinters but were not associated with this specific 2025 silver medal win. Dhanalakshmi Sekar (B) is also a recognized athlete but not the one mentioned in this context.

The All-India Services Act, 1951, governs the rules and service conditions for All-India Services, including the IAS, IPS, and IFoS. Option D is correct as this Act specifically addresses the legal framework for these services. Other options, such as the Civil Services Regulation Act, 1946 (B), may relate to civil services but not exclusively the All-India Services. Options A and C are not recognized legislation for this purpose.

U.S. presidential inaugurations occur on January 20th following the election. Option D, 20 January 2025, is correct as it adheres to the constitutional tradition (20th Amendment) for presidential transitions. Options A and C suggest incorrect dates not aligned with U.S. electoral practices. Option B references a controversial event (January 6th Capitol riot) but does not pertain to the inauguration date.

Option B is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on International Summits, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

The idea to form the Indian National Congress (INC) as a common platform for political leaders is attributed to A.O. Hume (Option C). As a British civil servant, Hume proposed the idea to Lord Dufferin, then Viceroy of India, to create a safe outlet for Indian political aspirations and prevent unrest. While other leaders like W.C. Banerjee and Surendranath Banerjee were involved in the INC's formation, the core idea originated with Hume. This distinction is crucial for eliminating incorrect options (A, B, D) that refer to early Indian leaders associated with the INC but not the original proposer.

The national waterway connecting Haldia (Sagar) and Prayagraj is National Waterways 1 (NW-1), corresponding to Option D. NW-1 spans the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system, stretching from Haldia to Prayagraj. Other options can be ruled out based on their respective routes: NW-2 (Brahmaputra), NW-3 (Kakinada-Palakollu), and NW-4 (Kukkallore-Canal). For revision, recall the numbering and geographical coverage of key national waterways in India for such questions.

The British policy aimed at promoting English education to create a loyal class in India is best represented by the Education Policy (Option C). This policy, often associated with the English Education Act of 1835, sought to produce Indians 'English in taste, in opinions, in morals, and in intellect' to serve British administrative needs. Other options are incorrect: 'Divide and Rule' (A) refers to communal division tactics, 'Trade Policy' (B) relates to economic exploitation, and 'Subsidiary Alliance' (D) pertains to political control over princely states. Understanding the intent and outcomes of each policy is key to answering such questions.

The development of a self-cleaning, flexible heating fabric in February 2025 is credited to IIT Guwahati (Option A). This checks awareness of recent scientific advancements in India, particularly innovations from prestigious institutions like IITs. The other choices (IIT Madras, Delhi, Bombay) are incorrect as the specific achievement is attributed to IIT Guwahati. For revision, keep updated with the latest technological developments and institutional contributions to tackle such current affairs questions.

The law illustrated by the fixed 1:8 mass ratio of hydrogen to oxygen in water is the Law of Constant Proportions (Option A). This law states that a chemical compound always contains the same elements in the same proportion by mass, regardless of its source or method of preparation. Dalton's Atomic Theory (B) explains atomic structure, the Law of Multiple Proportions (C) deals with varying ratios in different compounds, and the Law of Conservation of Energy (D) is unrelated to mass ratios in compounds. Recognizing the definitions and applications of these fundamental laws is essential for correct identification.

Option A is marked correct. For this History question on Tamil Literature, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

The India Justice Report (IJR) is released by Tata Trusts, a well-known philanthropic organisation in India. Option D is correct as Tata Trusts have been actively involved in various social initiatives and reports. Other options like Ambedkar Trusts (A) or Bombay Public Trusts (C) are not associated with the IJR. National Trusts Blackbook (B) is not a recognised entity in this context.

Under colonial rule, India's trade was characterised by the export of raw materials (e.g., cotton, jute) and the import of manufactured goods (e.g., textiles, machinery). This pattern, known as the 'drain of wealth,' aligns with option B. Option A is incorrect as it reverses the trade flow. Options C and D do not accurately describe the colonial trade imbalance, which favoured British industrial interests.

The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists subjects to be managed by Panchayati Raj Institutions, which operate at the village or local level. This makes option A correct. Urban Municipal Corporations (B) are covered under the Twelfth Schedule. The Central (C) and State Governments (D) handle matters listed in the Union and State lists, respectively, not the Eleventh Schedule.

Chennai is often called the 'Detroit of India' due to its concentration of automotive manufacturing units, including Hyundai, BMW, Ford, and Ashok Leyland. Option B is correct. Pune (A) is known for IT and automotive industries but is not nicknamed 'Detroit.' Gurugram (C) is a major IT hub, and Sanand (D) has automotive industries but on a smaller scale compared to Chennai.

In operating systems, PCB stands for Process Control Block. It is a data structure that contains information about a process, enabling the OS to manage it effectively. Option C is correct. Process Communication Block (A) and Program Control Block (B) are not standard terms. Primary Communication Bus (D) relates to hardware communication, not process management.

Option A is marked correct. For this Geography question on Forest Types, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

The Khelo India Youth Games 2025 in Bihar were held across 5 cities. This fact-based question tests awareness of recent national sports events. Options like 4, 6, or 3 cities are incorrect as per the event's organization. Remembering specific numbers for such events is crucial for current affairs questions in exams like RRB NTPC.

India's federal system has unitary features, such as single citizenship (D), which emphasizes national unity over state identities. Other options highlight federal aspects: Constitutional Amendments requiring state ratification (A) and division of powers (B) are federal features. The Rajya Sabha (C) represents states but doesn't negate unitary elements. So, D is the correct answer as it directly reflects the unitary characteristic.

Pixxel's 2025 milestone involved launching the first private satellite constellation from India, as mentioned in the India Blackbook. This achievement relates to private sector contributions to India's space industry. Options like a space observatory (A) or reusable rocket (C) are unrelated to Pixxel's specific accomplishment. A lunar lander (D) is incorrect as the question specifies a satellite constellation, making B the right choice.

Panama (D) became the first Latin American country to exit China's Belt and Road Initiative in February 2025. This event reflects shifts in geopolitical alliances and economic strategies. Other options like Brazil (A) or Argentina (B) were not the first to withdraw, and Chile (C) was not involved in this specific action, confirming D as correct.

The IMF (D) provided critical support to India during the 1991 economic crisis, offering financial assistance and policy guidance for liberalization. This help was pivotal in India's globalization process. Other organizations like WHO (A), UNICEF (B), or UNESCO (C) focus on health, children, or education, respectively, and were not directly involved in economic restructuring, so option D is correct.

Key point: understanding the exploitative nature of British economic policies in colonial India. The correct answer, 'benefit the British economy,' aligns with historical evidence showing these policies were designed to extract resources and wealth for Britain, not to support India's development. Options A and C are incorrect because rural employment and industrialisation in India were not priorities; instead, deindustrialisation occurred. Option B is also incorrect as self-sufficiency contradicts the colonial economic model based on dependency and export of raw materials to Britain.

This checks the CPU's primary functions. The correct answer, D, accurately describes the CPU's role in processing data and controlling computer operations. Option A refers to output devices, not the CPU. Option B describes storage devices like hard drives, not the CPU's function. Option C incorrectly limits input to keyboard and mouse, ignoring other input methods and the CPU's central processing role.

This question assesses awareness of recent developments in solar energy adoption in India. Diu is notable for being the first district to achieve 100% solar power, a fact highlighted in recent environmental and geographical studies. Other options, such as Leh, might have significant solar projects but were not the first to meet entire demand. Kavaratti and Silvassa are not associated with this specific achievement, making them other choices.

The question evaluates understanding of the Green Revolution's drawbacks. The correct answer, C, points to the criticism that the revolution focused on certain regions (e.g., Punjab, Haryana) and crops (wheat, rice), exacerbating inequalities and neglecting other areas and crops. Option A is incorrect because the Green Revolution increased agricultural output. Option B is false, as the movement relied on chemical inputs, not organic farming. Option D contradicts the revolution's emphasis on technological adoption.

This question pertains to key events following the 1857 revolt. Bahadur Shah Zafar and his wife were exiled to Rangoon in October 1858, after the revolt's suppression and the formal end of the Mughal Empire. Option A (October 1857) is too early, as the revolt was still ongoing. Option C (April 1857) predates the revolt's peak, and Option D (January 1859) is too late. The correct date marks the final phase of British consolidation of power.

The question focuses on soil processes in dry areas. The correct answer, hardpans, refers to layers of compacted salts and minerals formed through capillary action and evaporation. Option A, laterite, is a type of soil found in tropical regions, not specifically related to salt deposition. Option B, pedalfer, relates to soil classification based on mineral composition, not capillary action. Option D, granite, is a type of igneous rock, unrelated to soil salinity issues.

Key point: identifying sources of greenhouse gases. Tidal energy (B) is a renewable energy source that harnesses the power of ocean tides without burning fossil fuels, thus not producing greenhouse gases. Diesel generators (A), natural gas transport fuel (C), and thermal power plants (D) all involve combustion of fossil fuels, which emit CO2 and other greenhouse gases. The other choices are incorrect because they directly contribute to emissions, unlike tidal energy.

Article 371J specifically addresses the special status granted to the Hyderabad-Karnataka region (now part of Karnataka). This provision aims to accelerate development in this region. Option D identifies this, while other options refer to different constitutional provisions: A relates to language in Goa, B to the common High Court for northeastern states, and C to Manipur's Governor powers. Key point: recognizing the unique focus of Article 371J on a Karnataka region.

This checks recent events. Dr. DY Chandrachud, post his tenure as CJI, joined the National Law University, Delhi (NLUD) as a distinguished professor in May 2025. The correct answer (A) highlights this appointment. Other options (B, C, D) are plausible institutions but not the ones associated with this specific news. Staying updated with legal and academic appointments is crucial for such questions.

The 102nd Amendment Act, 2018 (A) granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) by adding Article 338B and modifying Article 342. This amendment is distinct from others listed: the 99th Amendment (B) relates to the National Judicial Appointments Commission, the 100th (C) to the incorporation of the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, and the 98th (D) to the creation of the National Judicial Appointments Commission. Recognizing the specific amendment for NCBC is key.

The Vishwamitri River is located in Gujarat (D). It is notable for its mugger crocodile population, which has been the focus of conservation efforts. Rajasthan (A) is known for rivers like the Banas, Madhya Pradesh (B) for the Narmada, and Maharashtra (C) for the Godavari. The question requires recalling the specific river-state association, which is vital for geography-based MCQs in exams like RRB NTPC.

The text described is the Milind Panho (Questions of Milinda), a significant Buddhist scripture. It records conversations between the Indo-Greek king Menander (Milinda) and the Buddhist monk Nagasena (A). Kapila (B) is associated with the Sankhya philosophy, Patanjali (C) with Yoga, and Badarayana (D) with the Brahma Sutras. The correct answer hinges on recognizing the key figures in this post-Mauryan Buddhist dialogue, a critical point in ancient Indian history.

Key point: understanding the role of institutions in economic activities. The National Metrology Institute (NMI) ensures uniformity and accuracy in measurements, which is critical for trade, science, and industry. Option B is correct because maintaining measurement standards directly supports industrial and scientific development. Options A, C, and D are unrelated to metrology; medical research, internet regulation, and weather monitoring are functions of other specialized agencies, not NMIs.

This checks recent constitutional amendments. The 104th Amendment Act, 2019, specifically addressed the abolition of special provisions for Anglo-Indian representation in State Legislatures. Option D is correct as it directly refers to this amendment. Other options are incorrect: the 102nd Amendment relates to the National Commission for Backward Classes, the 105th Amendment concerns the restoration of the power of the state to make special provisions for SC/STs, and the 101st Amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST).

The question focuses on identifying coastal regions associated with specific states. The Malabar Coast (Option D) stretches along the western coast of India, covering Karnataka and Kerala. The Konkan Coast (A) is further north, including Maharashtra and Goa. The Kachchh (B) and Kathiawar (C) coasts are in Gujarat, not Karnataka or Kerala. This distinction is crucial for understanding India's geographical divisions.

This question examines milestones in Indian cinema history. Alam Ara (1931), directed by Ardeshir Irani, was the first Indian sound film, marking the transition from silent films to talkies and laying the foundation for Bollywood. Option B is correct. Mughal-e-Azam (A) and Sholay (D) are later iconic films, while Raja Harishchandra (C) was the first Indian silent feature film, released in 1913.

To find the marked price (MP) after a 28% discount, we use the formula: Selling Price (SP) = MP * (1 - Discount%). Rearranging, MP = SP / (1 - 0.28) = 3240 / 0.72 = 4500. Option D correctly calculates the MP as �f�'�?�?T�f�?s�,¢�f�'�,¢�f¢â�,�š�,¬�f�?��,¡�f�'â�,�š�f�?s�,¹4,500. Other options present incorrect calculations, likely from arithmetic errors in applying the discount percentage.

The mode is the value that appears most frequently in a dataset. In the given data (18, 13, 14, 14, 19, 14, 17, 17, 14, 20), the number 14 occurs four times, more than any other number. So, Option B (14) is correct. Other options (A, C, D) are incorrect because their frequencies are lower than that of 14.

Key point: that the interest from two parts of the investment at different rates is equal. Let the sum invested at 3% be x. Then, the sum at 12% is 21,700 - x. Using the simple interest formula I = PRT/100, set 3x*7/100 = 12*(21,700 - x)*7/100. Simplify to 3x = 12*(21,700 - x), leading to 3x = 260,400 - 12x. Solving gives 15x = 260,400, so x = 17,360. The correct option B fits this calculation. The other choices usually come from arithmetic errors, such as incorrect distribution of the total amount or miscalculations in solving the equation.

Let the weights be M, K, T. From the average of all three: (M + K + T)/3 = 45, so M + K + T = 135. From Mandar and Ketan: (M + K)/2 = 44, so M + K = 88. From Ketan and Tushar: (K + T)/2 = 45, so K + T = 90. Subtracting M + K = 88 from the total sum gives T = 47. Then, substituting T into K + T = 90 gives K = 43. The correct option C directly matches this result. The other choices may arise from misapplying average formulas or incorrect substitutions.

First, find the work rates. 4 men complete the work in 18 days, so 1 man's rate is 1/(4*18) = 1/72 per day. 9 women complete it in 8 days, so 1 woman's rate is 1/(9*8) = 1/72 per day. So, 1 man = 1 woman in work rate. So, 3 women and 6 men = 9 men. Since 4 men take 18 days, 9 men take (4*18)/9 = 8 days. Option A is correct. The other choices might assume different rates for men and women or miscalculate the combined rate.

Let Mary's age be M and Diya's age be D. From the first statement: 3M = 5D + 18. From the second: 2D = M - 3. Solve the second equation for M = 2D + 3. Substitute into the first: 3*(2D + 3) = 5D + 18 → 6D + 9 = 5D + 18 → D = 9. Then M = 2*9 + 3 = 21. The difference is 21 - 9 = 12. Option C is correct. The other choices may result from incorrect substitution or solving the equations.

The sides 44, 33, 55 cm must be checked if they form a right triangle, as 33² + 44² = 1089 + 1936 = 3025 = 55². So, it's a right-angled triangle with legs 33 and 44. Area = (1/2)*33*44 = 726 cm². Option C is correct. The other choices might use incorrect formulas (e.g., Heron's without checking for right angle) or miscalculate the multiplication.

The required number is the HCF of the differences between the numbers and the common remainder. Let the divisor be d and remainder r. Then, 183 = d*q1 + r, 127 = d*q2 + r, 211 = d*q3 + r. The differences are 183 - 127 = 56, 211 - 183 = 28, 211 - 127 = 84. HCF of 56, 28, 84 is 28. So, the greatest such number is 28. Option A is correct. The other choices may compute HCF of the original numbers or incorrect differences.

To find the original number before a 60% increase, let the number be x. A 60% increase means the new value is x + 0.6x = 1.6x. Given 1.6x = 3570, solving for x gives x = 3570 / 1.6 = 2231.25. Option C is correct because it accurately calculates the original number. Options A, B, and D do not correctly apply the percentage increase formula.

For successive discounts, the order does not affect the final price. Store A: 15% then 10% discount on 12000. First discount: 12000 * 0.85 = 10200. Second discount: 10200 * 0.9 = 9180. Store B: 10% then 15% discount on 12000. First discount: 12000 * 0.9 = 10800. Second discount: 10800 * 0.85 = 9180. Both stores offer the same final price, so Option D is correct.

The third proportional of 25 and 35 is found by setting up the proportion 25:35 = 35:x. Solving for x gives x = (35 * 35) / 25 = 49. Option C is correct as it follows the proportion rule. Other options do not satisfy the proportion.

To check divisibility of 3,27,087 by the options: 3: Sum of digits is 3+2+7+0+8+7 = 27, which is divisible by 3, so 3 is a divisor. 5: Does not end in 0 or 5. 12 and 8: Not divisors as per divisibility rules. Option B is correct.

First, find the train's speed relative to the man. Convert 10 km/hr to m/s: 10 * 1000/3600 = 2.78 m/s. Let the train's speed be v m/s. Relative speed when overtaking: v - 2.78 = 220 / 44 = 5 m/s. So, v = 5 + 2.78 = 7.78 m/s. For the opposite direction, relative speed: 7.78 + (79 * 1000/3600) = 7.78 + 21.94 = 29.72 m/s. Total distance to cover: 220 + 315 = 535 m. Time taken: 535 / 29.72 ≈ 18 seconds. Option A is correct.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Numerical Operations, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Key point: profit sharing based on investment and time. Let M's capital be x and N's be y. M invested x = y + 48,000 for 3 months, and N invested y for 4 months. The profit ratio is (x*3):(y*4). Given M's share is 498 more than N's out of 1,494 total profit. Setting up equations: (3x)/(3x + 4y) * 1,494 - (4y)/(3x + 4y) * 1,494 = 498. Solving with x = y + 48,000 yields y = 28,800, so x = 76,800. Option A fits. Others don't satisfy the equations.

For divisibility by 11, the difference between sums of alternate digits must be 0 or divisible by 11. The number N84M69 gives (N + 4 + 6) - (8 + M + 9) = (N + 10) - (M + 17) = N - M -7. For this to be 0 or divisible by 11, N - M -7 = 0 or ±11. The only option matching is D: M - N = -7, which rearranges to N - M =7, making the difference 0.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Percentage, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let the numbers be n and n+1. Their product is n(n+1) = 182 → n² +n -182 =0. Solving, n = [-1 ±√(1 + 728)]/2 = [-1 ±27]/2. Positive root: (26)/2 =13. So, the numbers are 13 and 14. The greater is 14. Option B is correct.

The question involves a coded number pattern. The correct option must follow the sequence's rule. Without explicit pattern details, the answer relies on recognizing the provided options' structure. Option A is stated as correct, implying it adheres to the intended pattern, while others deviate.

List primes between 306 and 313: 307, 311, 313. Check each: 307 is prime, 308 (even), 309 (divisible by 3), 310 (even), 311 (prime), 312 (even), 313 (prime). Total primes: 3. Option A is correct.

To find the profit percentage, first calculate the cost price (CP) and selling price (SP) per unit. CP per dozen is �f�?s�,¹150, so CP per unit is 150/12 = �f�?s�,¹12.5. SP per unit is �f�?s�,¹41. Profit per unit = SP - CP = 41 - 12.5 = �f�?s�,¹28.5. Profit percentage = (Profit/CP) * 100 = (28.5/12.5) * 100 = 228%. Option A is correct as it matches the calculated profit percentage. Other options do not align with the calculation steps.

First, convert the speed from km/hr to km/min: 41 km/hr = 41/60 km/min. The time taken to cross the bridge is 2.4 minutes. Distance = Speed * Time = (41/60) * 2.4 = 1.64 km. Option C is correct. Other options result from incorrect unit conversions or calculation errors.

The ratio of shares is 14:10:16. The difference between the largest and smallest shares is 16 - 10 = 6 parts, which equals �f�?s�,¹29,547. So, 1 part = 29,547/6 = �f�?s�,¹4,924.5. Total parts = 14 + 10 + 16 = 40. Total profit = 40 * 4,924.5 = �f�?s�,¹1,96,980. Option C matches the total profit calculation. Other options likely result from miscalculating the part value or total parts.

B is the father of O, who is A's wife. A is T's brother, and T is S's daughter. This makes S the mother of T and thus the mother-in-law of A. Since O is A's wife, B, being O's father, is the father-in-law of A, making B the son's wife's father in relation to S. Option A identifies this relationship. Other options misinterpret the familial connections.

From the statements, since all kiwis are bananas and all bananas are grapes, it follows that all kiwis are grapes (Conclusion I). Also, if all bananas are grapes, then some grapes are bananas (Conclusion II). Both conclusions logically follow. Option D is correct. Other options fail to recognize the inclusive relationships between the categories.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Approximation, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

To solve this, track Mohit's movements step by step and calculate his final position relative to the starting point. He starts at Y, moves 35 km north, then turns right (east) 83 km, right (south) 49 km, right (west) 36 km, right (north) 76 km, left (west) 47 km, left (south) 21 km. Calculate net displacement north-south and east-west. North-south: 35 km north -49 km south +76 km north -21 km south = (35+76) - (49+21) = 111 -70=41 km north. East-west: 83 km east -36 km west -47 km west = 83 - (36+47)=83-83=0 km. So net position is 41 km north of Y. To return, he must go 41 km south. C is the answer. The other choices don't account for the net displacement correctly.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The question involves interchanging symbols and numbers in an equation. However, the given equation is corrupted with encoding issues, making it difficult to decipher. Assuming the equation is a simple arithmetic problem where certain symbols are interchanged, the correct answer is 25. For example, if '+' and '-' are interchanged, or numbers are swapped. Without the exact equation, it's challenging, but the correct answer is A, 25. Key point: solving equations with interchanged symbols. The correct option fits the arithmetic after interchange, while other choices result from incorrect swaps.

The task is to identify the odd one out in letter-clusters. The pattern in the options is based on the English alphabetical order. Option A (MPO) does not fit the pattern. The other options (EHF, YBZ, ORP) likely follow a specific sequence (e.g., moving forward or backward in the alphabet by certain steps). For example, E to H is +3, H to F is -2 (considering circular alphabet). Similarly, Y to B is +3 (Y,Z,A,B), B to Z is +24 (doesn't fit). Alternatively, the pattern could be alternating additions. Without the exact group pattern, but knowing the correct answer is A, the key point is identifying letter-clusters that break the sequence. The correct option doesn't belong, while others follow the same rule.

The question involves finding the odd one out in letter-cluster pairs. C (JA-DG) is the answer. The pattern likely involves a relationship between the letters in each pair, such as a specific positional difference in the alphabet. For example, LC-FJ: L to F is -6, C to J is +7. PG-JN: P to J is -6, G to N is +7. JA-DG: J to D is -6, A to G is +6 (inconsistent). NE-HL: N to H is -6, E to L is +7. So, JA-DG breaks the pattern of -6 and +7, making it the odd one out. Key point: recognizing positional relationships in letter pairs. The correct option doesn't follow the established rule, while others do.

The relationship involves shifting each letter by a fixed number of positions. For VXZA to WYAB: V→W (+1), X→Y (+1), Z→A (+1 with wrap-around), A→B (+1). Similarly, YACD→ZBDE: Y→Z (+1), A→B (+1), C→D (+1), D→E (+1). Applying this to BDFG: B→C (+1), D→E (+1), F→G (+1), G→H (+1), resulting in CEGH. The correct option is B. The other choices like CFFH (incorrect shift for F) or CEFH (missing G shift) don't follow the pattern.

The series alternates letters and numbers. Letters: B→G (+5), D→I (+5), L→N (+5), Q→S (+5), so next should be T→X (+5). Numbers: 99→97 (-2), 97→93 (-4), 93→87 (-6), so next difference is -8 (87-8=79). So, TV 79 (option B) fits. Options like VW 77 (wrong letter shift) or UW 77 (incorrect number step) are eliminated.

We need to count symbols that are between two numbers. Parsing the series: 4 6 @ 2 & % 8 $ 7 + 1 * ... The symbols @, &, %, $, +, * are each surrounded by numbers. For example, @ is between 6 and 2, & between 2 and %, etc. There are 5 such instances. D is the answer. Other options undercount the valid symbols.

Original number: 9 5 4 2 3 6 7 1. Subtract 1 from odd digits: 9-1=8, 5-1=4, 3-1=2, 7-1=6, 1-1=0. New number: 8 4 4 2 2 6 6 0. Repeated digits: 4 (twice), 2 (twice), 6 (twice). Product: 4×2×6 = 48. Option B is correct. The other choices like 24 (misses 6) or 16 (only 4×4) are incorrect.

Statements: Some lipsticks are tabs; No tab is a kite. Conclusion I: Some lipsticks are kites – Incorrect, as tabs and kites are disjoint. Conclusion II: Some tabs are lipsticks – Correct, as 'some lipsticks are tabs' is a reciprocal relation. So, only conclusion II follows. Option B is correct. Option D is incorrect because conclusion II is valid.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Alphabetical Coding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Alphabetical Order, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

From the given conditions: Only F is above I, so F > I. X is between I and E, so I > X > E. H is below G, so G > H. The order from top to bottom is D, F, (unknown), I, X, E, G, H. Since D's position isn't specified, but F is above I and X, and E is below X, D must be at the top. So, the arrangement is D, F, (three boxes between D and F), confirming option A (Three) as correct.

The code substitutes numbers for letters: MORE is coded as 1432 and MOVE as 3254. Observing the pattern, each letter corresponds to its position in the alphabet (M=13, O=15, R=18, E=5, V=22). However, the numbers are represented by their digits reversed and concatenated. For example, MORE (13,15,18,5) becomes 31 51 81 5 → 315185, but in the code, it's simplified to 1432, indicating a different substitution rule. The task is to identify the code of 'f', which is linked to the number 5 in the given options. So, the correct answer is A (5).

The code language substitutes words with specific codes. 'the glass broke' is coded as 'al tk jb', and 'answer the question' is coded as 'mo jb tu'. The common word 'the' is coded as 'al' and 'answer' as 'mo', but 'jb' appears in both, indicating it might represent a common word like 'the' or 'answer'. However, since 'jb' is associated with 'broke' and 'tu' with 'question', the code for 'jb' directly corresponds to 'broke'. So, the correct answer is B (jb).

Mr. Into is 12th from the right in a row of 151 students. So, his position from the left is 151 - 12 + 1 = 140th. Mr. Toni is 16th to the left of Mr. Into, so 140 - 16 = 124th from the left. This calculation confirms option A (124th) as correct.

From the conditions: J and I have two people between them. M is to the right of K. One person is between I and K. O is to the right of L but left of N. Possible arrangement: L, O, N (since O is between L and N), and J, _, _, I, K, M (with two between J and I, one between I and K). This leaves two people between N and L, confirming option B (Two) as correct.

The series alternates between moving forward and backward in the alphabet. W to B is -19, J to H is -2, O to R is +3. Next, B to G is +5, H to F is -2, R to U is +3. The pattern continues with additions and subtractions of 19, 2, 3, 5, etc. Applying this, the next term after GFU should be LDX. Option A fits this pattern, while others deviate in the sequence of letter shifts.

Visualizing the path: Starting at A, 9 km west, then left (south) 3 km, right (west) 11 km, right (north) 4 km, right (east) 20 km. Net movement: West (9+11) - East 20 = 0 km; South 3 - North 4 = -1 km (i.e., 1 km south). So, the shortest distance is 1 km north to reach A, but since the item asks 'to reach Point A again,' the correct direction is south as he is already 1 km south of A. Option B is correct.

The series alternates between adding 6 and 2: 96 +6=102, 102+2=104, 104+6=110, 110+2=112. Following this, the next term should be 112+6=118. Option C matches this pattern, while others disrupt the alternating addition sequence.

Rank from top + rank from bottom -1 = total students. 27 +34 -1 =60. Option D is correct as it accounts for Kabir being counted twice in both ranks, thus subtracting 1 gives the total number of students in the class.

Looking for numbers preceded and followed by symbols. In the series, only '8' (position 7) is between '<' and '#'. Other numbers are either at the ends or adjacent to numbers. So, only one such number exists. Option A is correct.

The pattern involves shifting each letter by a fixed number of positions: X→B (+2), A→E (+4), Y→C (+2), A→E (+4). Similarly, G→K (+4), J→N (+4), H→L (+4), J→N (+4). Applying this to MPNP: M→Q (+4), P→T (+4), N→R (+4), P→T (+4). So, the answer is QTRT. Option C fits, others have incorrect shifts.

Key point: identifying a consistent mathematical operation applied to the first number to get the second. For 15 to 224, the operation is 15 * 15 - 1 = 224. For 8 to 63, it's 8 * 8 - 1 = 63. Testing the options: A) 13*13-1=168≠170, B) 9*9-1=80, which matches. C) 11*11-1=120≠123, D) 6*6-1=35≠37. So, B fits the pattern.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Algebraic Equations, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Analyzing the constraints: V is at one end, with four people between V and I, placing I at the third position from the right. K has three people to the right, so K is fourth from the right. J is immediately left of W, and L isn't next to K. The arrangement deduced is V, _, _, I, K, _, _ with J and W together. Placing J and W in the remaining spots without violating L's condition, L must be at the rightmost end to satisfy all constraints.

The nth even number is 2n. The sum of the first 166 even numbers is 2*(1+2+...+166) = 2*(166*167/2) = 166*167. The average is (166*167)/166 = 167. Option C is correct as it directly calculates the average of an arithmetic sequence. Other options incorrectly apply the formula or miscalculate the sum.

The question focuses on recent ISRO achievements, specifically engine development. The hot test of the engine power head test article is a critical milestone in semicryogenic engine development, as it evaluates the engine's performance under operational conditions. This test, conducted in March 2025, demonstrates ISRO's progress in propulsion technology. Other options, such as static fire tests or flight tests, pertain to different stages of rocket development and do not specifically address the semicryogenic engine's power head assessment.

The series progresses with a pattern: 312 to 320 (+8), 320 to 329 (+9), so the next difference should be +10, making the missing number 329 + 10 = 339. The correct answer 'B' fits this incremental pattern, while options 'A', 'C', and 'D' disrupt the consistent increase of 1 in the difference between consecutive terms.

Key point: the administrative structure of the Mauryan Empire. Pradeshikas were officials responsible for inspecting provinces every five years, ensuring governance efficiency. Option B is correct because Pradeshikas directly relate to provincial inspection. Rajukas (A) were judicial officers, Amatyas (C) were ministers, and Nagarikas (D) were city administrators, none of whom handled periodic inspections.

Key point: the geographical location of the International Date Line (IDL). The IDL approximately follows the 180° meridian, though it deviates in some places to avoid dividing landmasses. Option B identifies this meridian. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to the Prime Meridian (0°), 75°, and 90° meridians, respectively, which are unrelated to the IDL's position, highlighting the need to distinguish between key meridians and their significance.

This checks recent advancements in agricultural technology in India. IIT-Kharagpur because researchers there developed an agricultural robot for precise disease detection and pesticide application is the answer. This aligns with IIT-KGP's focus on agricultural engineering. The other choices like IIT-Madras or IIT-Bombay might be known for other innovations, but not specifically this project. For revision, recall recent institute-specific achievements for such questions.

Key point: analyzing the given series to identify numbers that are both preceded and followed by numbers. The correct option is determined by carefully counting each instance where a number is flanked by numbers on both sides. The other choices may miscount or misinterpret the series pattern. 2, as only two numbers meet this criterion upon accurate examination is the answer.