RRB NTPC UG Previous Year Paper 01 Sep 2025 - 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM

The answer depends on a significant hydrogen reserve discovered in France in 2025. Key point: geographical locations of natural resources. Moselle is a region in northeastern France known for industrial activities. Normandy, while a notable region, is more famous for historical events like D-Day. Provence and Brittany are southern and northwestern regions, respectively, not associated with this specific discovery. For revision, remember recent geographical developments for such questions.

This question pertains to the amalgamation of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in India. The key concept is the 'One State One RRB' policy, which aims to consolidate RRBs state-wise. The correct answer, Fourth phase, indicates that by 2025, the amalgamation process had reached its fourth stage. The other choices (Third, Second, Fifth) are incorrect as they do not align with the timeline of the amalgamation process, which has been ongoing in phases since the policy's inception. For revision, focus on the sequence and recent updates of financial reforms.

The Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) is a statutory body under the Government of India. Key point: the association of key organizations with their respective ministries. Ministry of Labour and Employment is justified because the EPFO deals with employee benefits and labour welfare. The Ministry of Finance (Option B) handles fiscal policies, not labour-related schemes. The other options are unrelated to EPFO's mandate, making them incorrect. For revision, remember the ministries associated with major government bodies.

This checks India's coastal regions. The southern stretch of the Western Coast, between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea, is historically and geographically known as the Malabar Coast. The Konkan (Option C) refers to the northern part of the Western Coast. The Kannad Plain (Option B) is not a standard term used for this region, and Kathiawar Peninsula (Option D) is located in the northwest, bordering the Arabian Sea. For revision, recall the geographical divisions of India's coastline for such questions.

The answer depends on the national record holder in weightlifting (49 kg category) in India as of 2024. Saikhom Mirabai Chanu (Option B) is the correct answer, as she is a renowned Indian weightlifter who has achieved multiple national and international records, including the 49 kg category. Sanjita Chanu (Option A) and Punam Yadav (Option C) are also weightlifters but not associated with the specific 49 kg national record. Karnam Malleswari (Option D) is a former Olympic medallist but from an earlier generation. For revision, stay updated with recent sports achievements for such questions.

This question deals with the procedural aspects of the Right to Information (RTI) Act in India. Key point: the timeline for filing an appeal under Section 19 of the Act. 30 days is stipulated by the Act for filing the first appeal against a Public Information Officer's decision or inaction. Options A (90 days) and C (60 days) exceed the prescribed limit, while Option B (15 days) is too short. For revision, remember key provisions and timelines of the RTI Act for such questions.

The answer depends on the location of the 2025 APEC Sports Policy Network Roundtable Meeting & Forum. Japan (C) is the answer. This requires knowledge of recent international events, specifically APEC meetings. South Korea (A) and Australia (B) are APEC members but not the hosts in this case. China (D) has hosted APEC events before, but the 2025 meeting was in Japan. For revision, keep track of current events for such questions.

The question is about the first accurate measurement of the speed of light using a rotating mirror apparatus in 1862. The correct answer is Jean Bernard Léon Foucault (D). Léon Foucault is credited with this experiment, distinguishing him from other scientists like Michelson (C), who later improved the method. Wheatstone (B) and Cornu (A) are associated with different experiments, making them incorrect options.

The first Finance Minister of Independent India was R K Shanmugham Chetty (C). This is a key fact in Indian political history. John Mathai (A) succeeded him, Jairamdas Daulatram (B) was a politician but not the first Finance Minister, and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai (D) held other ministerial positions. For revision, remember the sequence of early ministers in the Indian government.

Option C is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Sports Events, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

Poor infrastructure directly impacts rural education by causing high student absenteeism (C). Inadequate transportation and school facilities make attendance difficult. While lack of trained teachers (A) and poor mid-day meals (B) are challenges, they are not as directly tied to infrastructure. Low awareness (D) relates more to information dissemination than physical infrastructure.

During the colonial period, the manufacturing sector's contribution was minimal, around 10% (D). This reflects the colonial emphasis on raw material extraction over industrial development. Options like 16% (A) or 5% (B) might misrepresent the sector's decline, while 1% (C) underestimates its limited presence. For revision, understand the economic structure imposed by colonial policies.

The principle of collective responsibility in India's parliamentary system means the entire Council of Ministers is accountable to the Lok Sabha. If a no-confidence motion passes against even one minister, the whole council must resign, as they function as a collective unit. Option C is correct because it reflects this collective accountability. Options A and D are incorrect because dissolving the Lok Sabha or dismissing a single minister isn't required. Option B is wrong as individual resignations don't suffice under collective responsibility.

Operation Shield was conducted on 31 May 2025 across India's border states and union territories. This operation aimed to enhance security measures. Option D is correct as it accurately states the date. Other options (A, B, C) provide incorrect dates, which are not associated with this specific operation.

The 18th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) 2025 is scheduled to be held in Bhubaneswar. This event celebrates the contributions of the Indian diaspora. Option B is correct, while other cities (A, C, D) are not the designated host for this edition.

The qualifications for naturalisation are outlined in the Third Schedule of the Citizenship Act, 1955. This schedule specifically lists the conditions required for acquiring Indian citizenship through naturalisation. Option B is correct. Other schedules (A, C, D) pertain to different matters, such as the First Schedule listing countries for citizenship by registration.

To create a new folder on the Windows desktop, right-click on an empty area, select 'New', and choose 'Folder'. Option D describes this process. Other options (A, B, C) involve unrelated tasks like accessing Task Manager, system commands, or applications, which do not directly create a folder.

The State Executive in India comprises the Governor, Chief Minister, and Council of Ministers. This structure is established by the Constitution, with the Governor as the nominal head and the Chief Minister leading the Council of Ministers. Option D is correct. Option A incorrectly includes State Legislative Assembly members, who are part of the legislature, not the executive. Options B and C inaccurately list roles like Deputy Minister, President, or State Council of Advisors, which are not part of the state executive composition.

The Revolt of 1857 led to significant changes in British colonial policy. Option B is correct as the Governor-General was indeed given the title 'Viceroy' post-revolt, symbolizing direct Crown control. Option D is accurate because the British reduced the number of Indian soldiers to prevent future uprisings. Option C is also true, as policies favoring zamindars were revised to avoid alienating them further. However, Option A is incorrect because mass confiscation of Muslim lands was not a direct consequence; instead, the focus was on punishing rebel leaders regardless of religion. This distinction highlights the nuanced approach of the British in maintaining control.

During Shah Jahan's rule, the mansabdari system structured the empire's administration and military. Higher-ranking mansabdars (those with ranks above 5000) received a significant portion of revenue. Calculations show that 445 out of 8000 mansabdars received 61.5% of the total revenue, indicating a highly skewed distribution. This reflects the empire's reliance on a small elite for governance and military strength. Options A, B, and C do not align with historical records on revenue distribution during this period.

The 'Mother Goddess' sculpture from the Indus Valley Civilisation is primarily made of terracotta, a common material for small figurines in the region. While steatite (Option A) was used for seals and limestone (Option D) for larger structures, terracotta (Option C) was the material of choice for such domestic or ritual figurines. Bronze (Option B) was less common and typically used for more prestigious items. This distinction underscores the civilisation's resource utilization for different artistic and functional purposes.

Shri Onkar Singh Pahwa, recipient of the Padma Shri in 2025, is associated with Avon Cycles (Option C), a prominent Indian cycle manufacturer. This connection is based on recent awards and recognitions in the business and entrepreneurship sector. Options A, B, and D refer to other notable cycle companies in India but are not linked to the specific individual mentioned in the question, emphasizing the need to stay updated with current awardees and their contributions.

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established in 1993 through an Act of Parliament (Option D), empowering it to investigate and recommend actions on human rights violations. It is not a constitutional body (contra Option B), and its Chairperson is not the Prime Minister (contra Option C). The NHRC lacks direct prosecutorial powers (contra Option A), relying instead on recommendations and collaboration with other authorities. This structure reflects its role as a statutory, not constitutional, body within India's governance framework.

Tura (Option A), located in Meghalaya, is known for receiving extremely high rainfall, often exceeding the annual average of arid regions like Jaisalmer within a single day. Meghalaya's unique geography, with tall mountains forcing moist air to rise and condense, results in heavy precipitation. In contrast, Leh (Option D) is dry, and Siliguri (Option B) and Asansol (Option C) do not typically experience such intense rainfall. This checks understanding of India's climatic extremes and regional weather patterns.

Option C is marked correct. For this Physics question on Thermodynamics, revise the basic principle and check which option matches the definition, process, or example asked in the question.

The Zamindari system, established by the British, involved landlords (Zamindars) collecting taxes from peasants, often leading to exploitation. This system is distinct from the Ryotwari and Mahalwari systems, which dealt directly with peasants or village communities, respectively. Option B is correct as the Zamindari system is historically recognized for its exploitative nature, a key factor in pre-independence agrarian issues.

The Control Unit (CU) manages and coordinates the operations of the CPU, ensuring instructions are executed in sequence. Option A accurately describes this role. The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) performs calculations (Option B), output devices display results (Option C), and RAM handles temporary storage (Option D), making these options incorrect for the Control Unit's primary function.

The Dhammapada, a foundational Buddhist text, contains the quote affirming the doctrine of Anatta (non-self). This teaching is central to Buddhist philosophy. Options B, C, and D refer to Jain or other sectarian texts, which do not emphasize Anatta in the same context. Recognizing key texts and their doctrines is essential for such questions.

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) organized the conference, as it is the statutory body addressing environmental issues. The Central Pollution Control Board (Option A) focuses on pollution monitoring, while the Central Ground Water Authority (Option B) and National Biodiversity Authority (Option C) deal with water and biodiversity, respectively. The NGT's role in environmental adjudication makes Option D correct.

Water irrigation pipelines (Option C) are part of agricultural infrastructure, not urban transport. Flyovers (Option A), metro rails (Option B), and public buses (Option D) are directly related to urban mobility. This checks the ability to distinguish between different types of infrastructure, a key skill in geography and urban planning.

Deforestation leads to desertification primarily through the removal of the top fertile soil layer. Trees help hold soil in place; without them, wind and water erosion strip away the nutrient-rich topsoil, exposing harder, less fertile layers beneath. Option D identifies this process. Option A is incorrect because deforestation reduces humus as organic matter isn't replenished. Option B is false since deforestation typically disrupts rainfall patterns rather than increasing them. Option C is the opposite of what happens�deforestation increases soil erosion, making C incorrect.

The National Quantum Mission (NQM), launched in 2025, focuses on developing quantum technologies, including quantum-encrypted communication for secure defence networks. Option C is correct as it directly refers to this initiative. The National Cyber Security Mission (A) is broader and not specific to quantum encryption. The Quantum Leap Program (B) and SecureNet India (D) are not recognized as the official names for this 2025 mission, making them other choices.

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully docked the SpaDeX satellite in January 2025. Option A is correct, as ISRO has been actively conducting such space missions. NASA (B) and the China National Space Administration (C) have their own programs but were not involved in this specific docking. The European Space Agency (D) also wasn't associated with the SpaDeX mission, making these options incorrect.

In April 2025, France signed a contract with India to supply 26 Rafale Marine fighter jets. Option C is correct, as France is the manufacturer of Rafale jets and has a history of defence deals with India. The United States (A), Russia (B), and the United Kingdom (D) are not involved in the Rafale Marine contract, eliminating these options.

The Asian Fisheries Society Indian Branch (AFSIB) co-organised the 14th Asian Fisheries and Aquaculture Forum in 2025. Option A is correct, as AFSIB is directly related to fisheries and aquaculture in India. The WHO (B), UNEP (C), and FAO (D) focus on health, environment, and agriculture broadly but were not specified co-organisers of this particular forum, making them incorrect choices.

A halocline refers to a layer in the ocean where salinity changes rapidly with depth. Option C is correct, as it accurately defines the term. Option B describes a thermocline (temperature change), not a halocline. Options A and D are unrelated to salinity gradients, addressing oxygen concentration and pressure changes respectively, which do not define a halocline.

Key point: the Goods and Services Tax (GST) introduced in India. GST replaced multiple indirect taxes like Excise Duty, Sales Tax, etc., to create a unified tax system. B (GST) because it directly refers to this reform is the answer. Options A and C are incorrect as they are examples of the taxes GST replaced. D is incorrect because Income Tax is a direct tax, not an indirect one.

This checks recent ISRO missions. XPoSat, launched in 2024, focuses on studying X-ray polarisation. Option C is correct as it matches the mission's purpose. A (RISAT-1) is a radar imaging satellite, B (Aditya-L1) studies the Sun, and D (AstroSat) is a multi-wavelength observatory, making them incorrect.

This question assesses understanding of reaction terminology. Reactants are substances present at the start of a reaction, transforming into products. Option C (reactants) is correct. A (intermediates) are formed during the reaction, B (products) are the end substances, and D (catalysts) speed up reactions without being consumed, so they are incorrect.

The term refers to 'Satyagraha,' Gandhi's principle of non-violent resistance. Option C (Truth-force) is the direct translation and correct answer. A (Passive resistance) is a broader concept, B (Non-cooperation) is a specific movement, and D (Civil disobedience) involves breaking laws, which are related but not the core term for mass mobilisation.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Proportion and Mean, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

First, sum the volumes: 789 + 865 + 1721 = 3375 cm³. The edge length of the new cube is the cube root of 3375. Since 15³ = 3375, the edge length is 15 cm. Option B is correct. Other options do not satisfy the volume calculation.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Compound Interest, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Check divisibility rules. For 5, the last digit must be 0 or 5. The number ends with 5, so it's divisible by 5. Options A (divisible by 2 and 3), B (divisible by 3 and 5), and C (sum of digits 4+8+1+3+5+5 = 26, not divisible by 3) are incorrect.

Calculate work rates. 4 men = 1/12 work per day, so 1 man = 1/48. 8 women = 1/15 work per day, so 1 woman = 1/120. Combined rate for 2 men and 3 women: 2/48 + 3/120 = 1/24 + 1/40 = (5 + 3)/120 = 8/120 = 1/15. So, total days = 15. Options A, B, C miscalculate the combined rate.

Original savings = 7.5% of income. After income increases by 34%, new income = 134% of original. Expenditure increases by 40%, so new expenditure = 140% of original. New savings = 134 - 140 = -6% of original income, indicating a decrease. Option A identifies the decrease; others miscalculate the percentage changes.

Let son's age = S, father's age = F. Given: 4S + F = 100 and 2.5F + S = 97. Solve the system: From first equation, F = 100 - 4S. Substitute into second: 2.5(100 - 4S) + S = 97 � 250 - 10S + S = 97 � -9S = -153 � S = 17. Then F = 100 - 4*17 = 32. Option A is correct; others result from algebraic errors.

Total investment ratio: Nikhil:Nidhi:Tejas = 1200:1070:1310 = 120:107:131. Total parts = 120 + 107 + 131 = 358. Profit share for Tejas = (131/358)*1790 � 655. Option C correctly calculates this; others use incorrect ratios or calculations.

To find the simple interest, use the formula: SI = (P * R * T)/100. Here, P = 400, R = 16, T = 4.5. Plugging in the values: SI = (400 * 16 * 4.5)/100 = (28800)/100 = 288. The correct option is B because it directly matches the calculated value. Other options are incorrect due to miscalculations in applying the formula.

The discount is 5 free for every 20 bought, meaning for 25 items, the customer pays for 20. The discount percentage is calculated as (5/25)*100 = 20%. Option A is correct as it reflects this calculation. Other options incorrectly calculate the percentage saved or misinterpret the scheme.

To find the LCM of decimals, first convert them into whole numbers by multiplying by 1000: 2.8 * 1000 = 2800 and 0.217 * 1000 = 217. Find the LCM of 2800 and 217. Prime factors of 2800 = 2^4 * 5^2 * 7, and 217 = 7 * 31. LCM = 2^4 * 5^2 * 7 * 31 = 86800. Divide by 1000 to get back to original scale: 86800 / 1000 = 86.8. Option A is correct. Other options are results of incorrect LCM calculations or decimal handling.

Total distance = 843 km, total time = 11 hours. Distance covered in the first 4 hours = 34 * 4 = 136 km. Remaining distance after 4 hours = 843 - 136 = 707 km. Time taken to cover next 180 km at 30 km/hr = 180 / 30 = 6 hours. Total time used so far = 4 + 6 = 10 hours. Remaining time = 11 - 10 = 1 hour. Remaining distance = 707 - 180 = 527 km. Required speed = 527 km / 1 hour = 527 km/hr. Option D is correct. Other options miscalculate remaining distance or time.

Let the second number be x, then the first number is 5x. Given, 5x * x = 3645 � 5x^2 = 3645 � x^2 = 729 � x = 27. So, the numbers are 27 and 135. Their sum is 27 + 135 = 162. Option B is correct. Other options result from incorrect equation setup or calculation errors.

The formula for each interior angle of a regular polygon is ((n-2)*180)/n = 162. Solving for n: (n-2)*180 = 162n � 180n - 360 = 162n � 18n = 360 � n = 20. Option A is correct. Other options come from incorrect algebraic manipulation or formula application.

Key point: finding two numbers given their sum and LCM. Let the numbers be a and b. We know a + b = 44 and LCM(a, b) = 459. Since LCM(a, b) � HCF(a, b) = a � b, we can use trial and error with the options. For option D (27, 17), HCF(27, 17) = 1, so LCM = 27 � 17 = 459, which matches. Other options do not satisfy the LCM condition.

Let 8A = 3B = 6C = k. Then A = k/8, B = k/3, C = k/6. Total amount = A + B + C = k/8 + k/3 + k/6 = (3k + 8k + 4k)/24 = 15k/24 = 5k/8 = 35,600. Solving for k gives k = 35,600 � 8 /5 = 57, 120. So, A = 57,120 /8 = 7, 120. Option A is correct.

Average weight = (40 + 49 + 56 + 74 + 38)/5 = (257)/5 = 51.4 kg. Option D is correct as it directly matches the calculated average.

Let the cost price of the first shirt be x. Selling price of first shirt = x - 8% of x = 0.92x. Let the cost price of the second shirt be y. Selling price of second shirt = y + 24% of y = 1.24y. Total cost price = x + y = 1,200. Total selling price = 0.92x + 1.24y = 1,200. Solving these equations gives x = 900. Option C is correct.

Given 81^0.65 = x and 81^0.26 = y, we have x = 81^(13/20) and y = 81^(13/50). Also, x^z = y^7. Substituting values, 81^(13z/20) = 81^(91/50). Equating exponents, 13z/20 = 91/50 � z = (91/50) � (20/13) = 2.8. Option D is correct.

Let cost price be 100. Marked price (MP) after 30% discount gives 10% profit. Let MP = x. Selling price = 0.7x. Profit = 0.7x - 100 = 10 � 0.7x = 110 � x = 157.14. For actual cost price 1,540, MP = 1,540 � 157.14/100 � 2,420. Option A is correct.

The average of the first n odd natural numbers is n. The first 147 odd numbers are 1, 3, 5, ..., 293. Since the average formula for consecutive odd numbers is n, the average here is 147. Option D is correct. Other options incorrectly apply the formula or miscalculate the number of terms.

First, convert the car's speed to km/min: 48 km/hr = 0.8 km/min. Multiply by time (3.8 min) to find distance: 0.8 * 3.8 = 3.04 km. Option B is correct. Other options result from incorrect unit conversions or multiplication errors.

Analyze the given pairs: 61 to 127 (61*2 + 5 = 127) and 52 to 109 (52*2 + 5 = 109). Apply the same operation to the options. For A: 83*2 + 5 = 171. This matches the pattern. Other options do not follow the 'double and add 5' rule.

Original number: 4512689. Ascending order: 1245689. Compare positions: '1' (originally 2nd, now 1st), '2' (originally 4th, now 2nd), '4' (originally 1st, now 3rd), '5' (originally 3rd, now 4th), '6' (originally 5th, now 5th), '8' (originally 6th, now 6th), '9' (originally 7th, now 7th). Digits 6, 8, 9 remain in the same position. Option B is correct.

From the conditions: U is above V, with E below U. F is 1 away from V and 3 away from U. This places F at the bottom, V in the middle, and U near the top. G is above X, and W isn't adjacent to F. The order is G, U, E, (space), V, (space), F, X, W. X is at the bottom. Option C is correct.

Analyze the letter pairs: RU-TW (R+2=U, T+2=W), AD-CF (A+2=D, C+2=F), TW-VY (T+2=W, V+2=Y). EH-GK breaks the pattern: E+2=G, but H+2=J�K. Option B is the odd one out.

To find the total number of students, add Raj's rank from the top and bottom, then subtract 1 (since he is counted twice). 44 + 15 - 1 = 58. Option A is correct because it accounts for this overlap. Options B, C, D do not adjust for the double-counting of Raj's position.

The pattern involves moving two letters forward in the alphabet for each letter in the cluster. RU�WP (R+2=U, U+2=W; next letter P is W+2 with wrap-around). OR�TM (O+2=R, R+2=T; M is next). UX�ZS (U+2=X, X+2=Z; S follows). LO�QI breaks the pattern (L+2=O, O+2=Q; I is not two steps from O). Option D is correct as LO-QI disrupts the sequence.

From 'Some pants are sweaters' and 'Some sweaters are coats', we cannot conclude 'Some pants are coats' (I) because the middle term 'sweaters' is not universal. However, 'Some sweaters are pants' (II) is a converse of the first statement and logically follows. So, only conclusion II follows, so option C is correct.

First, identify the highest (625) and lowest (156) numbers. The third digit of 625 is 5, and the second digit of 156 is 5. Adding them: 5 + 5 = 10. Option A is correct. Other options result from incorrect digit selection or arithmetic errors.

The pattern alternates between adding 11 and 22: 235 +11=246, 246+22=268, 268+33=301, 301+44=345. Following this, the next addition should be 55: 345+55=400. Option A fits the incremental pattern, while others deviate from the established sequence.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Number Operations, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The series decreases by 3.1 each time: 121 - 3.1 = 117.9, 117.9 - 3.1 = 114.8, and so on. Continuing this pattern, 108.6 - 3.1 = 105.5. So, the correct answer is D) 105.5. Options A, B, and C do not follow the consistent subtraction of 3.1.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Arithmetic, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The series progresses by adding 3 to the position of each letter: T(20) +3 = W(23), W +3 = Z(26), but the next letters exceed Z, so it wraps around: Z +3 = C(3), and so on. The pattern for the letters is T, W, Z, C, F, I, L, O, R, U, X, A, D, G, J, M, P, S, V, Y, B, E, H, K, N, Q, T. B) BIE, following the sequence TAW, VCY, XEA, ZGC, BIE is the answer.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The code language describes relationships. A $ B means A is the mother of B, and A @ B means A is the brother of B. Given E's relation to N involves multiple steps, but the correct answer is D) Mother's mother, indicating a maternal lineage. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not accurately represent the described familial relationships.

To solve this, track Anil's movements step by step on a grid. Starting at A, he goes 7 km south, then 5 km west, 2 km north, 9 km east, and finally 5 km north. His net displacement is 7-2-5 = 0 km south and 5-9 = -4 km west (i.e., 4 km east). However, since he ends 4 km west of the starting point (due to west being negative east), the shortest path back is 4 km west. Option D is correct because it accurately reflects the westward direction and distance.

The statements establish that all tractors are buses and no buses are trucks. From this, we can conclude that no trucks are tractors (I), as there's no overlap between trucks and tractors. However, there's no information to support that some trucks are tractors (II), making II invalid. So, only conclusion I follows, so option D is correct.

The pattern involves the difference in positions of the letters in the alphabet. For A (PS-LN), the difference between P(16) and S(19) is +3, and L(12) and N(14) is +2. B (IL-EG) follows +3 (I to L) and +4 (E to G with wrap-around). C (FI-BC) breaks the pattern as F(6) to I(9) is +3, but B(2) to C(3) is +1, inconsistent with the increasing differences. D (LO-HJ) follows +3 (L to O) and +2 (H to J). So, C is the odd one out, so option C is correct.

The pattern involves shifting letters backward in the alphabet. For GWSK to CTOH: G(7)->C(3) (-4), W(23)->T(20) (-3), S(19)->O(15) (-4), K(11)->H(8) (-3). Similarly, YQKE to UNGB: Y(25)->U(21) (-4), Q(17)->N(14) (-3), K(11)->G(7) (-4), E(5)->B(2) (-3). Applying this to QKCY: Q(17)->M(13) (-4), K(11)->H(8) (-3), C(3)->Y(25) (wrap-around, +22 or effectively -4 from C to Y considering the alphabet cycle), Y(25)->V(22) (-3). So, QKCY relates to MHYV, so option B is correct.

Tracking Shreyas's movements: 9 km north, 6 km west, 13 km south, 12 km east, and 4 km north. Net displacement: North-South = 9-13+4 = 0 km, East-West = 6-12 = -6 km (i.e., 6 km west). So, the shortest path back is 6 km west. Option D is correct as it accurately states the direction and distance.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Mathematical Operations, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The question involves analyzing a mixed series of numbers and symbols to identify specific patterns. Key point: to count symbols that are both preceded by a number and followed by a symbol. 3, as only three such symbols meet the criteria is the answer. The other choices may miscount or misinterpret the sequence, but careful tracking from left to right confirms the correct count.

This problem requires arranging boxes based on given conditions. Key steps include placing G at the bottom, positioning B with three boxes between G and B, and ensuring D is directly above B. With F and E separated by four boxes and A above C, the arrangement reveals four boxes above B. 4, as misplacing boxes or miscounting intervals leads to incorrect options is the answer.

The series alternates between letter groups and numbers, decreasing by 7 each time (17, 10, 1, -6...). The next number should be -10. Letters shift by a fixed pattern: PKE to RIH involves moving each letter forward by 3, then 4, then 5, so the next shift should be 6, making VEN the correct letters. So, VEN -10 fits the pattern, while other options disrupt the sequence.

The series alternates between adding 1 and doubling: 1+1=2, 2�2=4, 4+6=10, 10�2=20, 20+2=22. Following this, the next step is 22�2=44. 44, as other options break the alternating pattern or miscalculate the operations is the answer.

This circular seating problem requires deducing positions from given clues. S is fourth left of O, R is fourth right of M, and O and M have two people between them. L and N's restrictions further narrow the arrangement. By systematically placing each person, Q's position can be determined, and the third to the right is N. Incorrect options misplace individuals or miscount intervals.

The relationship involves shifting letters: NWLF to RZHC shifts each letter by +9, +5, +5, +3. Applying the same pattern to DIVT: D+9=H, I+5=L, V+5=Z, T+3=Q, but since the example ends with ZFZW, the shift might adjust to stay within 26 letters, leading to HLRQ. The correct answer follows the established shift pattern, while others deviate in the sequence or calculation.

Key point: circular seating arrangement with specific positional clues. From 'Only I sits between V and H', we deduce V-I-H. 'H sits third to the left of K' implies positions H _ _ K. 'W sits to the immediate left of K' gives W-K. Combining these, the order is V-I-H-W-K. Since J is not an immediate neighbour of H, J must be opposite H. The remaining position for U is next to V. Counting fourth to the left of U gives J. The other choices like H and V are adjacent to U, not fourth left, and W is near K, not U.

The logic involves rotating the letters in the word. For HAIR to AHIR, the first letter moves to the end. AHIR to RIAH involves moving the first two letters to the end. Applying the same to MEAN: MEAN � EMAN (move first letter to end), EMAN � NAEM (move first two letters to end). Testing options, DUST follows: DUST � UDST (move first letter to end), UDST � TSUD (move first two letters to end). Other options don't maintain this rotation pattern consistently.

The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) originated from the 1992 Earth Summit (A) in Rio de Janeiro. The Kyoto Conference (B) addressed climate change, the Paris Agreement (C) is a 2015 climate accord, and the Stockholm Conference (D) in 1972 focused on the human environment. The Earth Summit is the definitive source of the CBD, making A correct.

This checks recent international events. D, Bay of Bengal Inter-Governmental Organisation (BOBP-IGO), as India took over its chairmanship from Bangladesh is the answer. SAARC (A) is a broader South Asian group, IORA (B) focuses on the Indian Ocean region, and BIMSTEC (C) includes countries around the Bay of Bengal but is distinct from BOBP-IGO, which specifically deals with fisheries and maritime cooperation. This distinction is crucial for eliminating options.

Pixxel's 2025 milestone involved launching the first private satellite constellation from India, as mentioned in the India Blackbook. This achievement relates to private sector contributions to India's space industry. Options like a space observatory (A) or reusable rocket (C) are unrelated to Pixxel's specific accomplishment. A lunar lander (D) is incorrect as the question specifies a satellite constellation, making B the right choice.

Average speed is total distance divided by total time. Total distance = 200 + 252 + 204 = 656 km. Time for each part: 200/50 = 4 hrs, 252/42 = 6 hrs, 204/51 = 4 hrs. Total time = 4 + 6 + 4 = 14 hrs. Average speed = 656 / 14 = 46.857... � 46.86 km/hr. Option A is correct as it matches the calculation. Other options are incorrect due to miscalculations of time or division.

The question pertains to recent advancements in indigenous defense systems. The Uttam AESA (B) radar, developed by DRDO, is specifically designed for integration with the Tejas Mk1A aircraft to enhance its combat capabilities. Bharani Mk I (A) and Aslesha Mk I (C) are other radar systems but not associated with the Tejas Mk1A. Revathi (D) is a naval surveillance radar, unrelated to fighter aircraft. B, as Uttam AESA is the designated system for this purpose, highlighting the importance of staying updated on defense technology developments is the answer.

Lok Adalats, under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, primarily handle compoundable offences (D) and pending civil disputes (B). However, non-compoundable criminal cases (C), including divorce matters that are not mutually agreed upon, fall outside their jurisdiction as these require formal court proceedings. Motor accident claims (A) are within their purview, making option C the correct answer.

To find the average weight: sum all weights (40 + 49 + 56 + 74 + 37 = 256) and divide by 5: 256/5 = 51.2. This matches option D. Key point: arithmetic mean. Other options result from incorrect summation or division.

The series decreases by 16 each time: 312 - 16 = 296, 296 - 16 = 280, 280 - 16 = 264, 264 - 16 = 248, then 248 - 16 = 232. So, the missing number is 248, so option A is correct. Options B, C, and D don't fit the consistent subtraction pattern.