RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 04 Dec 2025 - 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM

The force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by F = BIL sinθ. Reversing the current direction changes the direction of the force since the sine function's sign depends on the angle between the current and magnetic field. So, the force reverses direction (D). Options A, B, and C are incorrect because the force magnitude remains the same if B, I, and θ are constant, but direction changes.

Voluntary muscles are under conscious control. The heart (A) and movements in intestines (B) and stomach walls (D) are involuntary. The tongue's movement (C) is voluntary, making it the correct answer.

Loudness is the perceptual quality of sound amplitude. Higher amplitude means louder sound. Options A, B, and C relate to pitch and speed, not loudness. So, D is correct.

Unbalanced force causes acceleration or deceleration. A book on a table (A) and a person standing (D) are in equilibrium. A car at uniform speed (B) has balanced forces. A rolling ball stopping (C) experiences friction, an unbalanced force, making C correct.

Work done W = F.d cosθ. If θ = 90° (perpendicular) or displacement is zero, cosθ = 0, so W = 0. Option A states this. Other options don't ensure zero work.

HCl (A) is a strong acid, releasing H+ ions in solution. NaOH (B), KOH (C), and Ca(OH)â'' (D) are bases, accepting H+ ions. So, A is correct.

Option D is marked correct. For this Chemistry question on Properties of Ionic Compounds, revise the basic principle and check which option matches the definition, process, or example asked in the question.

The Chipko Movement originated in Reni village due to the Forest Department's decision to allow a contractor to cut down trees (C). This event directly triggered the protests, where villagers hugged trees to prevent felling. Options A and B are unrelated to the immediate cause, and D refers to industrial development, which was not the primary trigger. The movement's origin is tied to external exploitation (contractors), making C the accurate choice.

Average speed is a scalar quantity, requiring only magnitude (distance/time), not direction (A, D correct). Option C incorrectly associates speed with direction, which is a characteristic of velocity, not speed. The SI unit (B) is correct. So, C is false as it conflates speed with velocity, a common distinction in physics.

Evaporation rate increases with higher surface area (A), wind speed (B), and temperature (C), as these factors enhance the escape of molecules. However, increased humidity (D) reduces evaporation, as the air already holds more water vapor, decreasing the rate. This makes D the incorrect option, contrary to the other factors that promote evaporation.

Neurons (C) are specialized cells with dendrites at one end to receive signals and axons to transmit them. Red blood cells (A) lack nuclei and organelles, monocytes (B) are immune cells, and platelets (D) are cell fragments involved in clotting. Only neurons exhibit dendrites, so option C is correct based on cell structure and function.

The force of attraction between particles varies with the state of matter. Solids have strong forces, liquids moderate, and gases weak. Option A states that forces differ between particles (e.g., ionic vs. covalent), while B is incorrect as forces are not uniform. Options C and D misrepresent the relative strength in liquids compared to solids and gases, reinforcing A as the accurate statement.

Key point: carbon's unique properties. Catenation refers to carbon's ability to form long chains and rings by bonding with other carbon atoms, enabling diverse structures. Tetravalency allows carbon to form four covalent bonds, facilitating the creation of complex molecules. Option B is correct as these two properties directly explain carbon's versatility. High melting point and ductility (A) are metallic properties, not carbon's. Conductivity and sonorous nature (C) are unrelated to carbon's bonding capabilities. Isomerism and allotropy (D) are results of catenation and tetravalency, not the primary causes.

The power of a lens is calculated using the formula: Power (D) = 1 / focal length (m). Given the focal length is 25 cm (0.25 m), the power is 1 / 0.25 = 4 D. Since it's a convex lens, the power is positive. So, option D (+4.0 D) is correct. Options A and B have incorrect signs or values, and option C miscalculates the reciprocal (1/0.25 = 4, not 3).

The right-hand thumb rule is specifically used to determine the direction of the magnetic field around a straight current-carrying conductor. Option D accurately states this application. Option C incorrectly associates the rule with finding force on a conductor, which is the domain of the Fleming's left-hand rule. Options A and B are incorrect as the thumb rule does apply to straight conductors, not just loops or other configurations.

Bleaching powder is chemically known as calcium oxychloride, with the formula Ca(ClO)â''. Option A correctly represents this. Option B refers to calcium chlorite, which is not bleaching powder. Options C and D present incorrect formulas, either with incorrect stoichiometry or oxidation states of chlorine, which are critical for identifying the compound's bleaching properties.

Myopia, or short-sightedness, occurs when the eyeball is elongated, causing distant objects to appear blurred while nearby objects are seen clearly. Option C is correct. Hypermetropia (B) involves difficulty seeing nearby objects. Presbyopia (A) is age-related loss of near vision, and astigmatism (D) involves irregular corneal curvature affecting vision at all distances. The key distinction lies in the nature of the refractive error and its impact on vision range.

The fallopian tubes serve as the passageway for the egg (ovum) to travel from the ovary to the uterus. Option C is correct. The vagina (A) connects the uterus to the exterior, the ureter (B) is part of the urinary system, and the cervix (D) is the lower part of the uterus, not involved in egg transport. Understanding the anatomical pathway of the egg is crucial for identifying the correct answer.

Key point: asexual reproduction methods. Fission involves the splitting of an organism into two or more parts, each growing into a new individual. Blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) reproduce asexually through binary fission, so option D is correct. Seed plants (A and B) primarily reproduce sexually via seeds, and not all plants (C) use fission; many use spores or vegetative propagation. This distinction is crucial for eliminating incorrect options.

Formula unit mass refers to the sum of atomic masses of all atoms in one formula unit of a compound. Option B correctly defines this as it accounts for the total mass in a single formula unit. Option C describes molar mass, not formula unit mass. Options A and D confuse atomic and molecular mass with the formula unit concept, which applies specifically to ionic compounds, not elements or molecules.

The pollen tube's role is to deliver the male germ cell (sperm) to the ovule for fertilization. Option C accurately describes this function. Option A refers to pollination, not the tube's role post-germination. Option B describes pollen grain contents, not the tube's function. Option D confuses fertilization (zygote formation) with the tube's transport role, highlighting the need to distinguish between processes in the reproductive cycle.

To enhance honey quantity and quality, bees need a consistent nectar source. Option B ensures this by providing nectar-rich flowers throughout the season, directly supporting honey production. Options A and D reduce floral resources, diminishing honey output. Option C removes wildflowers, which are often key nectar sources, making B the clear choice for sustainable beekeeping practices.

Statement (i) is true: fluids exert pressure on both the base and walls of their container due to gravity and molecular collisions. Statement (ii) is false because fluid pressure is transmitted equally in all directions (Pascal's principle). So, only (i) is correct, making option A the right choice. This distinction is fundamental to understanding hydraulic systems and pressure dynamics in fluids.

Apical meristems (A) are responsible for primary growth, increasing plant height through cell division at the tips of roots and shoots. Cambium (B) and lateral meristems (D) contribute to secondary growth (girth), not height. Secondary meristem (C) is not a standard classification, reinforcing that apical meristem is the key tissue for vertical growth, a critical concept in plant morphology.

Key point: electrolytic refining, specifically for copper. In this process, an electrolyte is needed to conduct electricity and allow the transfer of copper ions. The correct answer is copper sulphate (C) because it dissociates into Cu²� ions and SO�²� ions in solution, providing the necessary copper ions for deposition at the cathode. Copper oxide (A) and copper carbonate (D) are not typically used as electrolytes in this context because they do not dissolve as readily in water to form a conductive solution. Copper chloride (B) could theoretically be used, but copper sulphate is more commonly employed in industrial processes due to its stability and effectiveness. This distinction is crucial for the exam, as it tests the application of electrolyte properties in metallurgical processes.

First, calculate the combined rate of pipes B and C. Pipe B fills 1/30 per minute, and pipe C fills 1/40 per minute. Their combined rate is 1/30 + 1/40 = (4 + 3)/120 = 7/120 per minute. Pipe A empties at 1/6 per minute. The net rate when all three are open is 7/120 - 1/6 = 7/120 - 20/120 = -13/120 per minute. However, since the tank is initially one-tenth full, we need to fill 9/10 of the tank. The time required is (9/10) / (7/120 - 1/6) = (9/10) / (7/120 - 20/120) = (9/10) / (-13/120). The negative sign indicates an error in calculation direction. Correct approach: After pipe A empties the tank in 6 minutes, the tank is empty. Then, pipes B and C together fill the tank at 7/120 per minute. Time to fill the entire tank is 1 / (7/120) = 120/7 � 17.14 minutes. But since the tank was emptied first, total time is 6 + 120/7 � 6 + 17.14 = 23.14 minutes, which is closest to 24 minutes. Key point: recognizing the sequence of events and calculating the net fill rate correctly.

Let the length of the train be L and its speed be S. For the first tunnel: L + 2492 = S * 81. For the second tunnel: L + 1914 = S * 64. Subtract the second equation from the first: (L + 2492) - (L + 1914) = 81S - 64S � 578 = 17S � S = 34 m/s. Substitute S into one of the equations: L + 1914 = 34 * 64 � L + 1914 = 2176 � L = 2176 - 1914 = 262 m. The correct option is 262 m, as it directly results from solving the system of equations based on the train's speed being constant.

The mode is the value that appears most frequently in the dataset. In the given heights: 172, 173, 164, 178, 168, 169, 173, 172, 173, 164, 178, 168, 169, 173, the number 173 occurs four times, which is more than any other number. Options A (163) and C (178) appear less frequently, and B (172) occurs three times. So, the correct answer is D (173).

Let the cost price be 100. The listed price is 176 (76% more). A 54% discount on 176 is 0.54*176 = 95.04. The selling price is 176 - 95.04 = 80.96. Loss = 100 - 80.96 = 19.04. Loss percentage = (19.04/100)*100 = 19.04%. Option B is correct. Option A miscalculates the discount, and options C and D likely result from incorrect percentage applications.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Statistics, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let Anushree's present age be x. Ankita's age is 50 - x. Five years ago, Ankita was 45 - x and Anushree was x - 5. According to the problem, 45 - x = 3(x - 5). Solving: 45 - x = 3x - 15 � 60 = 4x � x = 15. So, Anushree is 15 years old. Option A is correct. Other options don't satisfy the equation.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Percentage, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Surface area of a sphere is 4�r². If it increases by 69%, new surface area is 1.69 * 4�r² = 4�(�1.69 r)² � new radius r' = �1.69 r = 1.3r. Volume is (4/3)�r³, so new volume is (4/3)�(1.3r)³ = 2.197 * (4/3)�r³. Percentage increase = (2.197 - 1)/1 * 100 � 119.7%. Option A is correct.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Profit and Loss, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Trigonometry, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let pen = p, pencil = c. Given: 3p = 5c � p = 5c/3. Also, 5p + 3c = 34. Substituting p: 5*(5c/3) + 3c = 34 � 25c/3 + 3c = 34 � 25c + 9c = 102 � 34c = 102 � c = 3. Then p = 5*3/3 = 5. So, 3p + 5c = 3*5 + 5*3 = 15 + 15 = 30. Option C is correct. Other options don't fit the equations.

To find the altitude to side QR in triangle PQR, we recognize it as an isosceles triangle since PQ = PR = 25 cm. The altitude from P to QR bisects QR into two 20 cm segments. Using the Pythagorean theorem: altitude² + 20² = 25². Solving, altitude² = 625 - 400 = 225, so altitude = 15 cm. Option A is correct because it directly results from this calculation. Other options don't satisfy the theorem.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Arithmetic, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

First, calculate the cost price (CP) which is 100% + 33% = 133% of the marked price. So, CP = 415 / 1.33 � 312.03. The selling price (SP) for 13% profit on CP is 312.03 � 1.13 � 352.80. The discount percentage is the difference between marked price and SP over marked price: (415 - 352.80)/415 � 0.1504 or 15.04%. Option D is correct as calculations confirm this percentage.

To check divisibility by 7, 11, and 13, we can use the product of these primes (1001). A number divisible by 1001 is divisible by all three. 6006 ÷ 1001 = 6, so it's divisible. Options B, C, and D aren't multiples of 1001. So, A is correct as 6006 is the only number meeting the criteria.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Arithmetic, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The amount after 2 years is calculated using A = P(1 + r/100)^n. Here, P = 6800, r = 10, n = 2. So, A = 6800 � (1.1)^2 = 6800 � 1.21 = 8228. Option C matches this calculation. Other options either miscalculate the exponent or apply simple interest incorrectly.

The question involves calculating a percentage. 33 is the answer.33%, which is option A. Without the specific calculation steps provided in the question, it's essential to recognize that percentage problems often require finding a part of a whole. Common other choices might involve miscalculations, such as dividing by the wrong number or misapplying percentage increase/decrease formulas. Ensuring the calculation aligns with the question's wording is crucial.

Let the TV's original cost be Rs. 100. The washing machine costs 25% less, so Rs. 75. After an 83% increase, the washing machine costs 75 * 1.83 = Rs. 137.25. The TV decreases by 15%, so 100 * 0.85 = Rs. 85. For 8 washing machines and 4 TVs, original total cost is 8*75 + 4*100 = 600 + 400 = Rs. 1000. New total cost is 8*137.25 + 4*85 = 1098 + 340 = Rs. 1438. The percentage increase is ((1438 - 1000)/1000)*100 = 43.8%, which matches option B. The other choices might miscalculate individual percentage changes or total costs.

The total surface area of a cylinder is 2�r(r + h). Given the base area is 169� cm², so radius r = �(169) = 13 cm. Height h = 15 cm. Total surface area = 2�*13*(13 + 15) = 26�*28 = 728� cm². Using � � 22/7, 728*(22/7) = 2288 cm², which is option C. The other choices might use incorrect formulas (e.g., only lateral surface area) or miscalculate the radius from the base area.

Let A's work rate be 'a' and B's be 'b'. Together, a + b = 1/5. B alone takes 10 days, so b = 1/10. So, a = 1/5 - 1/10 = 1/10. A's rate is 1/10 per day, so for double the work (2 units), time = 2 / (1/10) = 20 days, which is option D. The other choices might incorrectly calculate A's rate or misapply work formulas.

From the statements: G is above B, D above F, E above A, two boxes above G, and D not third from the bottom. Arranging from top: E, A, (two above G), G, B, (D must be higher than F and not third from bottom), so D and F are at the bottom. The order could be E-A-...-G-B-...-D-F. So, D is at the fifth position from the top, meaning 5 boxes are above D (including E, A, and the two above G), but considering the exact positions, the correct count is 5 boxes above D, so option C is correct. The other choices might miscount the positions or misinterpret 'immediately above'.

Statements: Some dolls are pencils (D � P � �) and some fingers are pencils (F � P � �). Conclusions: (I) All fingers are dolls (F � D) is incorrect because there's no direct relation between F and D. (II) Some dolls are fingers (D � F � �) is also incorrect as dolls and fingers both relate to pencils, but no common element is confirmed. So, neither conclusion follows, so option D is correct. The other choices might assume overlapping sets where none are guaranteed.

Start by placing C with two people to the left, so positions 3 from the left. With three people between C and W, W is at position 7. One person between W and X places X at 9. D is immediately left of A, so they can be at positions 1 and 2. Y isn't next to W, so Y must be at position 8. Remaining B is at position 6. Only one person (Y) is to the right of B, so option C is correct. The other choices miscount positions or misplace Y.

From 'dinner is tasty' coded as 'ola tf sh', 'dinner' corresponds to 'sh' since 'is' is 'tf' and 'tasty' is 'ola'. Similarly, 'cook' in 'john sh ai' relates to 'dinner' as 'sh'. So, 'dinner' is coded as 'sh', so option C is correct. The other choices incorrectly associate other words.

Each letter in the clusters SUN, PRK, FHA follows a pattern of moving back one letter in the alphabet (S->R->Q, P->O->N, F->E->D), but KME breaks this (K->J->I, M->L->K, E->D->C). So, KME doesn't fit, so option D is correct. The other choices follow the decreasing pattern.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Mathematical Operations, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Adit's movements: North 11km, left (west) 6km, left (south) 17km, left (east) 13km, left (north) 6km. Net north-south: 11km north -17km south +6km north = 0km. Net east-west: 6km west -13km east = 7km west. So, shortest distance is 7km west, option D. The other choices miscalculate net displacement.

Each cluster's letters are in reverse alphabetical order: SUN (S-U-N), PRK (P-R-K), WXV (W-X-V), but PRO (P-R-O) is in correct order. So, PRO doesn't fit, so option B is correct. The other choices follow the reverse pattern.

Key point: circular seating arrangement with directional clues. Start by placing E to the immediate right of D. G is second to the left of E, so positions are G, _, D, E. B is third to the right of E, placing B three seats clockwise from E. A is the immediate neighbour of both C and B, so A sits between B and C. The remaining seat is F. Counting from F's left, there are two people between F and C. Option C (Two) is correct because the arrangement sequence confirms two people in between, eliminating other options.

This problem involves tracking movements on a grid. Starting at A, moving south 15 km, then right (west) 18 km, right (north) 25 km, right (east) 16 km, right (south) 5 km, left (east) 6 km, and finally right (south) 5 km. Calculate the net displacement: South 15 -25 +5 +5 = 0 km, West 18 -16 = 2 km, East 6 km. Net position is 4 km west of A. The shortest distance is 4 km west, so option A is correct. Other options misinterpret the net movement.

The task is to count symbols flanked by numbers. Analyze the series: 6 �,© % �,© 7 # 5 % 5 4 2 # �,© 5 6 2 �,© $ â�?s¬ 1 â�?s¬ 8. Check each symbol: �,© is preceded by 6 and followed by %, but % is not a number. Next �,© is preceded by % (not a number). # is preceded by 7 and followed by 5 (valid). % is preceded by 5 and followed by 5 (valid). # is preceded by 2 and followed by �,© (invalid). �,© is preceded by 5 and followed by 6 (valid). Only three symbols meet the criteria, so option C (3) is correct.

Identify the pattern in the series 105, 87, 69, 51, 33, ?. Calculate differences: 105-87=18, 87-69=18, 69-51=18, 51-33=18. The pattern is subtracting 18 each time. Next term: 33-18=15. Option C (15) is correct, as the consistent subtraction rule eliminates other options.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbolic Logic, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Arrange the people around the table using the clues. K is third to the left of L, so positions are K, _, _, L. I is immediate left of L, so K, _, I, L. J is second to the left of C, and D is immediate left of J: D, J, _, C. Combine the sequences: K, _, I, L and D, J, _, C. Since it's circular, connect the ends. B's position is determined by elimination. The arrangement is K, B, I, L, D, J, C. Third to the right of B is K. Option A (K) is correct, as the step-by-step placement confirms the relative positions.

Key point: applying arithmetic operations to individual digits based on parity. Original number: 5 1 4 7 9 3 4. For odd digits (5,1,7,9,3), add 2: 7,3,9,11,5. For even digits (4,4), subtract 1: 3,3. The transformed number is 7 3 3 9 11 5 3. The third digit from the left is 3 (position 3), and the second from the right is 5 (position 6). Sum: 3 + 5 = 8. Option A is correct because it matches the calculated sum. The other choices usually come from miscalculating digit positions or misapplying the operations.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Alphabetical Coding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The relationship between BFHC and IMOJ involves shifting each letter forward by 5 positions: B�G (invalid, BFHC to IMOJ: B�I (8-2=6 shift), F�M (12-6=6), H�O (15-8=7), C�J (10-3=7). The pattern isn't consistent. Alternative approach: B�I (shift +7), F�M (+7), H�O (+7), C�J (+7). So each letter is shifted +7. Applying this to DHJE: D�K (+7), H�O (+7), J�Q (+7), E�L (+7), resulting in KOQL, which matches the given relation. For FJLG: F�M (+7), J�Q (+7), L�S (+7), G�N (+7), so the result should be MQSN, which is option B. Key point: a consistent +7 shift, so option B is correct.

The series is 4 3 5 2 9 7 2 8 7 2 1 8 7 4 5 5 2 3 5 5 6 9 6 3 3. We need to find odd digits that are both preceded and followed by odd digits. Checking each odd digit: 3 (preceded by 4 even, no), 5 (preceded by 3 odd, followed by 2 even, no), 9 (preceded by 2 even, no), 7 (preceded by 9 odd, followed by 2 even, no), 7 (preceded by 2 even, no), 1 (preceded by 2 even, no), 7 (preceded by 1 odd, followed by 4 even, no), 5 (preceded by 4 even, no), 5 (preceded by 5 odd, followed by 2 even, no), 3 (preceded by 2 even, no), 5 (preceded by 3 odd, followed by 5 odd, yes), 5 (preceded by 5 odd, followed by 6 even, no), 9 (preceded by 6 even, no), 3 (preceded by 6 even, no), 3 (preceded by 3 odd, followed by end, no). Only the 5 at position 17 (counting from left, 5 preceded by 3 and followed by 5) meets the criteria. So, only one such digit exists, so option C is correct.

The series is 5, 9, 17, 29, 45, 65, ?. Identifying the pattern: 5 to 9 (+4), 9 to 17 (+8), 17 to 29 (+12), 29 to 45 (+16), 45 to 65 (+20). The differences increase by 4 each time (+4, +8, +12, +16, +20). Next difference should be +24. 65 + 24 = 89. Option D is correct as it follows the incremental difference pattern. Other options don't fit the +24 increment.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Key point: substitution coding where words are replaced by specific codes. 'travel' is coded as 'op' and 'exciting' as 'ab' from the first statement. The second statement confirms 'exciting' as 'ab'. So, 'exciting' directly translates to 'ab', so option C is correct. The other choices like 'lm' and 'op' relate to other words like 'enjoyable' and 'travel', not 'exciting'.

From the given conditions: S is above P, two boxes between P and D, E is below B, and T isn't immediately above D. Arranging these, a possible order is S, W, P, B, E, T, D. Here, W and E have two boxes (P, B) between them. Option A (Two) is correct as it matches the derived arrangement. Other options miscount the spacing between W and E.

We need odd digits preceded by odd and followed by even. Scanning the series: 8 4 6 4 6 1 9 6 7 2 2 2 2 1 5 5 1 6 6 7 2 5 5. Checking each odd digit: 1 (preceded by 6-even, no), 9 (preceded by 1-odd, followed by 6-even: valid), 7 (preceded by 6-even, no), 1 (preceded by 2-even, no), 5 (preceded by 1-odd, followed by 5-odd: no), 5 (preceded by 5-odd, followed by 1-odd: no), 1 (preceded by 5-odd, followed by 6-even: valid), 7 (preceded by 6-even, no), 5 (preceded by 2-even, no), 5 (preceded by 5-odd, followed by end: no). Only 9 and 1 meet the criteria, making option C (Two) correct.

Looking for odd numbers both preceded and followed by odd. Series: 9 8 5 8 8 9 8 6 2 6 1 4 4 7 9 9 4 8 1 7 5 6 8 6 5 6 9. Checking odds: 9 (preceded by nothing, no), 5 (preceded by 8-even, no), 9 (preceded by 8-even, no), 1 (preceded by 6-even, no), 7 (preceded by 4-even, no), 9 (preceded by 7-odd, followed by 9-odd: valid), 9 (preceded by 9-odd, followed by 4-even: no), 1 (preceded by 8-even, no), 7 (preceded by 1-odd, followed by 5-odd: valid), 5 (preceded by 7-odd, followed by 6-even: no), 9 (preceded by 6-even, no). Only two instances (9 and 7) fit, so option B (2) is correct.

Analyzing the pairs: 14 to 2. Possible operation: 14 - 12 = 2. Next pair: 119 - 102 = 17. The pattern is subtracting 12, 102, etc., but inconsistent. Alternatively, 14 ÷ 7 = 2, and 119 ÷ 7 = 17. This division by 7 fits both. Testing options: 105 ÷ 7 = 15, which matches option D. Other options don't fit this division.

The pattern in LDS, MET, NFU, OGV involves shifting each letter by +1, +2, +3 respectively for each subsequent term. For example, L(+1)=M, D(+2)=F, S(+3)=V. Applying this to OGV: O(+1)=P, G(+2)=I, V(+3)=W. So, the next term is PIW, but checking options, the closest is PHW (option D), considering possible alternate patterns or typos in the question.

The given code defines relationships: A+B (son), A-B (brother), AxB (wife), A�f·B (father). The expression D - F x G + H �f· J translates to D is the brother of F, who is the wife of G, who is the son of H, who is the father of J. Breaking it down: F is G's wife, G is H's son, so F is H's daughter-in-law. H is J's father, so G is J's brother. So, F is J's sister-in-law. D is F's brother, making D the brother of J's sister-in-law, hence D is J's brother's wife's brother. Option A identifies this relationship. Other options misinterpret the brother-wife-father hierarchy.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Alphabet Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Statements: Some Llamas are Sheep, All Sheep are Mules, No Mules are Pigeons. Conclusion I: Some Llamas are Mules. Since some Llamas are Sheep and all Sheep are Mules, some Llamas must be Mules. Conclusion II: No Sheep are Pigeons. If no Mules are Pigeons and all Sheep are Mules, then indeed no Sheep can be Pigeons. Both conclusions logically follow, so option A is correct. Other options incorrectly dismiss one or both conclusions.

The series pattern decreases the 1st letter by 2 (K�I�G�E�C), the 2nd letter by 1 (T�R�P�N�L), the 3rd letter by 1 (V�T�R�P�N), and the number increases by 12 each time (12, 24, 36, 48, 60). Following this, the next term after ENP 48 would be CLN 60 (Option B). Other options either miscalculate the letter shifts or the number increment.

In December 2024, India developed a new antibiotic called Nafithromycin to combat Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR). This is a critical update in medical research. Option B is correct as it directly references the new antibiotic. Other options list existing antibiotics (Cefixime, Azithromycin, Amoxicillin) not specifically linked to the 2024 development.

Option B is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Entertainment, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

The answer depends on a Pakistani athlete recognized as the Best Asian Athlete in May 2025. Arshad Nadeem, a renowned javelin thrower from Pakistan is the answer. He gained prominence for his achievements in international athletics, notably in the Commonwealth Games and Asian Championships. Other options like Babar Azam (cricket) and Sana Mir (cricket) are notable Pakistani sports figures but not associated with this specific award. Mohammad Abbas is a cricketer, not a track and field athlete, so option A is correct.

This question focuses on the world chess ranking as of June 2025. Magnus Carlsen, the Norwegian grandmaster, has consistently held the number one position for several years, known for his exceptional skill and dominance in international chess tournaments. While R Praggnanandhaa and D Gukesh are rising Indian chess stars, they have not surpassed Carlsen's ranking. Fabiano Caruana, an American-Italian grandmaster, was a past challenger but not the current number one, solidifying option A as correct.

The question concerns a cleanliness drive before a national urban local bodies' conference in Manesar. The Manesar Municipal Corporation (B) would logically initiate such a drive as part of local governance responsibilities, especially for a local event. Delhi Police (A) handles law enforcement, not municipal sanitation. The Chief Minister of Haryana (C) might announce initiatives but typically delegates local execution. The National Urban Forum (D) sounds like a broader organization, not a local implementing body, making B the most appropriate answer.

The answer depends on an initiative launched in July 2025 for women's workplace wellness in India. Mahila Aarogyam Kaksh (A) directly translates to 'Women Health Room,' aligning with the goal of promoting wellness. Janani Suraksha Yojana (B) is a maternal health scheme, not specifically workplace-focused. Ayushman Bharat (C) is a broader health insurance program. Swasthya Mahila (D) isn't a widely recognized scheme name, making A the correct choice based on the description and naming relevance.

The question refers to a prisoner of war exchange in Istanbul in June 2025. Russia and Ukraine (A) have been in a state of conflict since 2022, with periodic prisoner exchanges mediated by third countries like Turkey (Istanbul's location). Liberia and Sierra Leone (B) are not currently in a known conflict involving such exchanges. Israel and Iran (C) have tensions but no recent reports of POW exchanges. India and Pakistan (D) have historical conflicts but no specific 2025 Istanbul-mediated exchange reported, confirming A as correct.

This question asks which institute launched 'Gyanodaya' for pedagogical innovation in July 2025. IIM Kozhikode (A) is known for management education and innovation, making it a plausible initiator of such a program. NIT Rourkela (B) focuses on technical education, IISc Bangalore (C) on scientific research, and IT Delhi (likely a typo for IIT Delhi) (D) on technology and engineering. 'Gyanodaya' suggests a focus on knowledge dissemination, aligning with an IIM's mandate for managerial and educational innovation, thus A is the correct answer.

This checks recent Indian sports events. Key point: identifying athletes in a specific team. Neeraj Chopra is a renowned javelin thrower, not a sprinter, so option A is correct. B, C, and D are plausible sprinters who could be part of a relay team, but Chopra's specialization in a different event makes him the odd one out. This distinction is crucial for eliminating other choices.

This question assesses awareness of recent insurance sector developments. Key point: recognizing the first company to introduce crash detection in car insurance. Zuno General Insurance (A) launched this innovative product, as per the 2025 notification. Other options, like Shriram Life (B) and Kotak Mahindra (C), are life insurance providers, not general insurers, which typically handle car insurance, helping to eliminate them. Future Generali (D) is a general insurer but wasn't the first in this case.

The question evaluates knowledge of recent app launches for public services. The Sachet app's primary function is providing real-time disaster alerts (D), aligning with government initiatives for public safety. Options A (social networking) and B (online shopping) are common app categories but unrelated to disaster management. C (educational tutorials) might be a distractor if the app had an educational component, but the core purpose here is emergency alerts, making D the clear choice.

This checks awareness of India's military exercises with neighboring countries. The Surya Kiran exercise is a bilateral event between India and Nepal (D), focusing on counter-terrorism and disaster management. Egypt (A) and Sweden (B) are not regular partners for this specific exercise, while Japan (C) engages in different joint drills like Dharma Guardian. Knowing the regular participants helps eliminate incorrect options.

Option C is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Literature, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This question assesses awareness of recent innovations in agricultural safety. 'Kisan Kavach' (D) is India's first anti-pesticide bodysuit, designed to protect farmers from chemical exposure. Options A and C ('Kisan Bodysuit' and 'Farmer Bodysuit') are generic names that don't specifically refer to the patented product. 'India Kavach' (B) might seem similar but isn't the officially recognized name for this invention, helping to confirm D as correct.

The answer depends on the launch city of the e-Zero FIR initiative by the Union Home Minister in May 2025. Delhi is the answer. This initiative, under the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C), aims to enhance the efficiency of investigating cyber financial frauds, aligning with the Cyber Secure Bharat vision. Delhi, being the national capital, is a hub for such national-level launches. Kolkata, Lucknow, and Mumbai are major cities but not associated with this specific initiative's launch.

The question pertains to a chemical factory blast in Telangana on 30 June 2025. Sigachi Chemicals is the answer. This incident highlights industrial safety concerns. Sigachi Chemicals is specifically identified as the site of the blast, distinguishing it from other options like Bharat Chemicals, Deccan Industries, and Andhra Petrochemicals, which are not linked to this event.

The answer depends on the allocation to the Khelo India Programme in the FY 2025-26 Budget. The correct answer is �1,000 crore. The Khelo India Programme, aimed at promoting sports in India, received this specific allocation. The other options (�500 crore, �750 crore, �1,500 crore) are plausible but incorrect figures, emphasizing the need to recall exact budgetary allocations for such flagship programmes.

The question concerns Arvind Kejriwal's assembly constituency in the 2025 Delhi Assembly Elections. New Delhi is the answer. As the Chief Minister of Delhi, Kejriwal traditionally contests from the New Delhi constituency, a significant political stronghold. Other constituencies like Kondli, Mundka, and Moti Nagar are part of Delhi's electoral map but not associated with Kejriwal's candidacy in this context.

The answer depends on a new category introduced by the Central Pollution Control Board in 2025 for essential environmental services. Blue is the answer. This categorization is part of efforts to streamline environmental regulations. The 'Blue' category likely pertains to specific environmental services, differentiating it from other colour-coded categories (Pink, Purple, Black) that may represent different levels of pollution or service types.

The question pertains to the surplus amount transferred by the RBI to the Centre for FY25. The correct answer is �2.69 lakh crore. The RBI's surplus transfer is a critical aspect of the country's fiscal management. This figure reflects the RBI's profit transfer to the government, accounting for its operational profits. The other options (�1.69 lakh crore, �2.00 lakh crore, �3.00 lakh crore) are either underestimations or overestimations of the actual transferred amount.

Prime numbers between 146 and 196 are: 149,151,157,163,167,173,179,181,191,193. Total 10 primes. To count, check divisibility for each number in the range. The other choices (11,12,13) might include non-primes or miscount. For example, 187 (11*17) is not prime. Careful checking confirms 10 primes, making D correct.

The question involves decoding family relationships using given symbols. Break down the expression: L is the wife of M, who is the father of N, who is the mother of O, and O is the sister of P. Since N is the mother of O and O is P's sister, N is P's mother. So, L, being M's wife and N's mother, makes L the mother of N, and consequently, L is P's mother's mother (maternal grandmother). The correct option reflects this maternal lineage. The other choices incorrectly identify the generational relationships or mix maternal and paternal lines.

Sexual reproduction in plants promotes genetic variation through recombination, enhancing adaptability to environmental changes. Option A is correct. Options B and D are incorrect because sexual reproduction relies on pollination and flower formation. Option C describes asexual reproduction, which produces clones without genetic diversity.

From the given information: B is second to the right of A, and C is immediate right of B. So the order is A, (one seat), B, C. D is second to the left of E, so E, (one seat), D. Since it's a circular table, the remaining seat between A and E must be F. So, the immediate right of F would be D. Options A and B are incorrect based on the arrangement, and C is not adjacent to F.