RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 04 Dec 2025 - 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM

Key point: the relationship between plants and their environment. Option D is correct because plants depend on the environment for resources like sunlight, water, and nutrients, but they do not control the environment itself. Options A and B are incorrect as they suggest plants control the environment, which is false. Option C is also incorrect because environmental energy sources (e.g., sunlight) are not uniform and vary depending on factors like location and time.

This checks understanding of asexual vs. sexual reproduction. Fragmentation (A), fission (B), and regeneration (D) are methods of asexual reproduction involving a single organism. Sexual reproduction (C) requires two parents, making it the correct answer. The key distinction is the involvement of one vs. two organisms, a fundamental concept in biology.

The placenta's functions include hormone production (B), facilitating nutrient and oxygen transfer (C), and waste removal (D). Oxytocin secretion (A) is primarily done by the pituitary gland, not the placenta, though the placenta may stimulate its release indirectly. This question assesses knowledge of placental roles, emphasizing hormone sources and their origins.

Pressure is calculated as force per unit area (P = F/A). Here, force (weight) is 600 N, and area is 0.02 m². So, P = 600 N / 0.02 m² = 30,000 N/m² (or Pa). Option D matches this calculation. Common mistakes include dividing incorrectly or misinterpreting units, but the formula application is straightforward.

Connective tissues are characterized by cells embedded in an extracellular matrix. Bone's mineralised matrix (D) is a defining feature. Options A and B describe functions of nervous and circulatory systems, respectively, not connective tissue. Option C is incorrect because bone has a significant matrix, unlike some other tissues.

Power is the rate of doing work, calculated as Work divided by time (P = W/t). Option D correctly represents this formula. Options A and B incorrectly add or multiply work and time, which are dimensionally inconsistent. Option C inverts the relationship, emphasizing the need to recall the basic formula for power.

Key point: Joule's Law, which relates heat produced (H) to power (P) and time (t): H = P * t. Given H = 200 J per second, P = 200 W. Using P = V^2 / R, rearrange to find V = sqrt(P * R). Substituting P = 200 W and R = 8 Ω, V = sqrt(200 * 8) = sqrt(1600) = 40 V. Option A is correct. Options B, C, D result from incorrect calculations or misapplying formulas.

A fuse's primary function is to interrupt the circuit during overcurrent, preventing damage. Option C states this protective role. Option A confuses fuses with capacitors or batteries. Option B describes a voltage regulator, not a fuse. Option D is incorrect as fuses limit, not increase, current.

Isomerism refers to compounds with the same molecular formula but different structures. Butane's straight and branched forms (e.g., n-butane vs. isobutane) exemplify structural isomerism. Option B is correct. Polymerisation (A) involves forming long chains, not applicable here. Catenation (C) refers to bonding between same-type atoms, not structural variations. Sublimation (D) is a phase change, unrelated to molecular structure.

Sperm development (spermatogenesis) requires temperatures 2-3°C below body temperature. External testes maintain this cooler environment. Option C is correct. Option A is incorrect as testosterone regulation isn't the primary reason. Option B misstates sperm transport mechanisms. Option D describes the urethra's function, not testicular positioning.

Graphite's layered structure features each carbon bonded to three others in a hexagonal lattice. This arrangement allows for conductivity and lubricating properties. Option C is correct. Tetragonal (A) and square pyramidal (D) describe crystal systems not applicable to graphite. Pentagonal (B) bonding isn't characteristic of graphite's structure.

In uniform velocity, the velocity-time graph is a horizontal line. The slope (acceleration) is zero, as acceleration is the rate of change of velocity. Option B identifies this. Option A is incorrect as a curve implies changing velocity. Option C contradicts uniform velocity, where acceleration is zero. Option D misinterprets the area under the graph, which represents displacement, not speed.

The sign convention in optics dictates that the height of an erect image formed by a mirror is considered positive. This is because, under standard conventions, positive values denote real images or distances in the direction of the incoming light. Since an erect image suggests the image is upright relative to the object, its height is taken as positive. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because imaginary numbers aren't used for image height, zero would imply no image, and negative signifies an inverted image.

Smooth muscle is found in the walls of internal organs like the stomach and intestines. This type of muscle is involuntary, meaning it operates without conscious control. Skeletal muscle (A) is voluntary and attached to bones, while striated muscle (D) refers to the striped appearance of skeletal and cardiac muscles. Voluntary muscle (C) is another term for skeletal muscle, so option B is correct.

Rutherford's atomic model introduced the concept of a dense, positively charged nucleus at the center of the atom. This was a significant departure from the earlier plum pudding model (D). While electrons were proposed to orbit the nucleus, the idea of fixed shells (A) came later with the Bohr model. The nucleus containing only electrons (C) is incorrect, as the nucleus holds protons and neutrons. So, B is the defining feature of Rutherford's model.

Corrosion is primarily caused by factors like air (oxygen), water, and acids, which facilitate oxidation reactions. Alloying (B) is a process where metals are combined to improve properties like corrosion resistance. So, alloying is a preventive measure, not a cause of corrosion, so option B is correct.

Physical changes involve alterations in state without forming new substances. Melting (A), boiling (B), and freezing (C) of water are physical changes, as water remains H2O. Burning a candle (D) involves combustion, producing new substances like CO2 and H2O, making it a chemical change. So, D is the correct answer as it's not a physical change.

Magnesium (Mg) has a valency of +2, and chlorine (Cl) has a valency of -1. To balance the charges, two Cl ions are needed for each Mg ion, forming MgCl2. Options B and C are incorrect due to improper formatting and unbalanced charges. Option D, MgCl, would leave the charges unbalanced (+2 for Mg and -1 for Cl), confirming A as the correct formula.

This scenario demonstrates inertia, the tendency of an object to resist changes in its state of motion. When the card is flicked, it moves quickly, but the coin remains at rest due to its inertia. Option B is correct because the coin doesn't move with the card; it stays in place and falls into the glass. Option A is incorrect as the card doesn't push the coin; the coin's inertia causes it to stay behind. Option C is wrong because the force is applied to the card, not directly to the coin. Option D is incorrect since the coin doesn't move away with the card.

The basic nature of a substance is determined by the presence of hydroxide ions (OH-). Option B is correct because OH- ions are responsible for basicity. Option A (Cl-) is a chloride ion, typically from an acid like HCl, so it contributes to acidity. Option C (Na+) is a spectator ion from a salt and doesn't affect pH directly. Option D (H+) indicates acidity, not basicity. This distinction is fundamental to understanding acid-base chemistry.

Sodium acetate (A) forms a basic solution because it's the salt of a weak acid (acetic acid) and a strong base (NaOH). In water, it hydrolyzes to produce OH- ions, increasing pH above 7. Sodium chloride (B) is neutral as it's from a strong acid and strong base. Copper sulphate (C) and ammonium chloride (D) form acidic solutions due to the hydrolysis of their cations (Cu²�) or anions (NH��), releasing H+ ions. So, only option A is correct.

A primary advantage of large dams is the generation of hydroelectric power (C), a renewable energy source. Option A is incorrect because dams may control but not entirely prevent downstream flooding. Option B refers to decentralized energy, which isn't a direct benefit of large dams that centralize power generation. Option D is false as dams often disrupt local ecosystems, reducing biodiversity initially. Hydroelectric power is a key concept in understanding the role of dams in energy production.

Oysters (A) are cultivated for pearls, which are formed as a natural defense mechanism against irritants. Sardines (B) and pomfrets (C) are fish species primarily used as food, not for pearl production. Prawns (D) are crustaceans also consumed as seafood. This checks organisms used for specific economic purposes, highlighting the unique role of oysters in pearl farming.

Both statements are true. Statement 1 correctly states that the incident ray, refracted ray, and normal are coplanar, a fundamental principle of refraction. Statement 2 refers to Snell's Law, which defines the refractive index as the ratio of the sines of the angles of incidence and refraction. This law holds constant for given media. So, option B is correct, as both statements accurately describe the refraction process responsible for the bent appearance of the straw.

Key point: the relationship between pitch and frequency. A high-pitch sound corresponds to a high frequency, while a low-pitch sound corresponds to a low frequency. Option D states this relationship. Options A and B incorrectly associate amplitude with pitch, but amplitude relates to loudness, not pitch. Option C reverses the frequency order, which is incorrect.

First, calculate Q as the sum of the first three odd natural numbers: 1 + 3 + 5 = 9. Since R is the third proportional of 9 and Q, we set up the proportion 9:Q = Q:R. Substituting Q = 9 gives 9:9 = 9:R, so R = 9. This matches option C. Other options do not satisfy the proportion.

Initially, provisions are for 100 men for 12 weeks, so total provision units = 100 * 12 = 1200. When 50 more men join, total men = 150. Let the new duration be 'w' weeks. Since provision units remain constant, 150 * w = 1200. Solving for w gives w = 8. Option C is correct; others don't balance the provision units.

Prime numbers between 386 and 395 are checked: 389, 397 is outside the range, 391 is divisible by 17, and 393 is divisible by 3. Only 389 is prime. So, there's 1 prime number, so option B is correct. Options A, C, and D miscount the primes in the range.

The filling pipe's rate is 1/7 per minute, and the emptying pipe's rate is -1/56 per minute. Combined rate = 1/7 - 1/56 = 7/56 = 1/8 per minute. To fill 1/4 of the tank, time = (1/4) / (1/8) = 2 minutes. Option A is correct; others miscalculate the combined rate or fraction filled.

Let the number be 'x'. The equation is 0.2x + 72 = x. Solving gives 0.8x = 72, so x = 90. Then, 75% of 90 = 0.75 * 90 = 67.5. Option A is correct; others incorrectly calculate the percentage or solve for x.

To calculate compound interest, use the formula A = P(1 + r/100)^n. Here, P = 5700, r = 10, n = 2. A = 5700*(1.1)^2 = 5700*1.21 = 6897. Option C matches this calculation. Options A and D incorrectly apply the formula, possibly using simple interest or miscalculating the exponent. Option B seems to miscalculate the second year's interest.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Geometry - Angles, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

First, find the train's speed: 8763m / 127s � 69.08 m/s. To cross a 552m platform, the total distance covered is 8763 + 552 = 9315m. Time taken = 9315 / 69.08 � 134.8s, which rounds to 135s (Option A). Other options likely result from incorrect speed calculation or distance addition.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Statistics - Median, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let original speed be v. In 4 hours, distance = 4v. With a 20% decrease each hour, speeds are 0.8v, 0.64v, 0.512v, 0.4096v. Total distance covered in 4 hours with decreasing speed: 0.8v + 0.64v + 0.512v + 0.4096v = 2.3616v. Setting this equal to 4v (original distance) is incorrect; instead, equate the distance covered at decreasing speeds to the original distance: 4v = v*t, where t is the time at original speed. However, the correct approach involves recognizing that the average speed with the 20% decrease is not directly relevant. The correct answer D (2.952 hours) suggests using harmonic mean or another method to find the equivalent time at original speed, indicating a need to re-evaluate the calculation method.

Using the work formula: Men � Work / (Days * Depth). So, 18 men * 4 days * 65 feet = 24 men * 6 days * 130 feet. Solving for men: 18*4*65 = 24*6*130 � 4680 = 18720, which is incorrect. The correct approach is to set up the proportion as (18 * 4) / 65 = (x * 6) / 130, solving for x gives x = (18*4*130)/(65*6) = (18*4*2)/6 = 24. So, Option D is correct. Other options result from incorrect proportion setup or calculation errors.

This problem involves using the tangent function from trigonometry. The angle of elevation is 30°, and the height of the tower (opposite side) is 100 m. The tangent of 30° is 1/�3, which equals opposite/adjacent. Setting up the equation: 1/�3 = 100/distance. Solving for distance gives distance = 100�3 � 173.2 m, which matches option A. The other choices likely result from miscalculating �3 or misapplying the tangent ratio.

Let the sides be x and y. The area xy = 176 and the diagonal gives x² + y² = 18² = 324. Using (x + y)² = x² + y² + 2xy, we find (x + y)² = 324 + 352 = 676, so x + y = 26. The perimeter is 2(x + y) = 52 m, which is option A. The incorrect options may come from errors in forming equations or calculating the sum of squares.

Complementary angles sum to 90°. Let the angles be x and x - 22. So, x + (x - 22) = 90. Solving gives 2x = 112, so x = 56°, which is option D. The other choices might assume the difference is taken from the smaller angle or miscalculate the equation setup.

Let the son's current age be x, so the father's age is 3x. Ten years ago, their ages were x - 10 and 3x - 10. The equation is 3x - 10 = 5(x - 10). Solving gives 3x - 10 = 5x - 50 � 2x = 40 � x = 20. Now, the father is 60. In ten years, their ages will be 30 and 70, summing to 100, which is option C. Errors may come from incorrect equation setup or age relationships.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Profit and Loss, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The arithmetic mean is the sum of observations divided by the number of observations. Sum = 16 + 85 + 98 + 12 + 69 + 95 + 21 + 45 + 54 = 495. There are 9 observations, so mean = 495 / 9 = 55, which is option B. Errors might come from incorrect addition or miscounting the number of terms.

Let the cost price (CP) be Rs. 100. Selling price (SP1) is Rs. 120, giving x% profit. Using the formula: (SP1 - CP)/CP * 100 = x, so (120 - 100)/100 * 100 = 20%. So, x = 20. If sold for Rs. 20 more (SP2 = 140), profit% is 2x = 40%. Checking: (140 - 100)/100 * 100 = 40%, which matches. Hence, x = 20 is correct. Option B fits as calculated, while others don't satisfy the conditions.

Given 5x + 2 = 62, solve for x. Subtract 2 from both sides: 5x = 60. Divide by 5: x = 12. This matches option D. Other options (A:10, B:20, C:15) do not satisfy the equation when substituted back.

Total votes = 18,600. Candidate A got 60%, so 0.6 * 18,600 = 11,160 votes. Candidate B got 40%, so 0.4 * 18,600 = 7,440 votes. Difference = 11,160 - 7,440 = 3,720, which is option D. Other options are miscalculations of percentages or subtractions.

Volume of chocolate used = (4/3)�R³ - (4/3)�r³ = 800�/3, where R = 6 cm (outer radius) and r is the hollow radius. Simplify: (4/3)�(216 - r³) = 800�/3. Cancel common terms: 216 - r³ = 800/4 = 200. So, r³ = 216 - 200 = 16. So, r = �16 � 2.52 cm, matching option D. Others are incorrect cube roots.

Total investment = 10,500. Let Prakhar's investment be P and Riya's be 10,500 - P. Profit ratio is P : (10,500 - P) = 1,200 : (9,000 - 1,200) = 1,200 : 7,800 = 1:6.5. So, P/(10,500 - P) = 1/6.5 � 6.5P = 10,500 - P � 7.5P = 10,500 � P = 1,400, which is option B. Others don't fit the ratio.

Marked price (MP) = 821, which is 39% above cost price (CP). So, CP = 821 / (1 + 39/100) = 821 / 1.39 � 591.37. Profit% = 2%, so selling price (SP) = CP * (1 + 2/100) � 591.37 * 1.02 � 603.80. Discount% = (MP - SP)/MP * 100 � (821 - 603.80)/821 * 100 � 26.62%, matching option A. Others are calculation errors.

Key point: circular seating arrangement with specific positional relationships. Start by placing D and A with two people between them. Then, position G, C, E, and F based on given clues. E is immediate right of G and second left of D, which helps fix their positions. C is third left of G, and F is C's neighbor. After arranging all except B, B must occupy the remaining spot. Counting from G's left, there are 4 people between B and G. The other choices miscount the gaps or misplace B's position.

The question involves decoding family relationships using given symbols. Break down the expression: L is the wife of M, who is the father of N, who is the mother of O, and O is the sister of P. Since N is the mother of O and O is P's sister, N is P's mother. So, L, being M's wife and N's mother, makes L the mother of N, and consequently, L is P's mother's mother (maternal grandmother). The correct option reflects this maternal lineage. The other choices incorrectly identify the generational relationships or mix maternal and paternal lines.

The series pattern involves adding 12, then 24, then 36, etc., increasing by 12 each time. Calculate the differences: 23-11=12, 47-23=24, 83-47=36, 131-83=48. The next difference should be 60 (12*5), so 131+60=191. 191 is the answer. The other choices either continue the pattern incorrectly or miscalculate the incremental steps.

Key point: linear seating with specific conditions. Start by placing C with two people to the left, so C is third from the left. Then, W is three seats away from C, and X is one seat from W. D is immediate left of A, and Y isn't next to W. After placing all except B, B must occupy the remaining spot at the far right. So, only one person (none, as B is at the end) sits to the right of B. The other choices miscount positions or misapply the conditions, especially regarding Y's placement.

The logic involves rotating the letters one position to the right in each step. For ACNE to CANE, each letter shifts right; CANE to ENCA follows the same rotation. Apply this to INCH: rotating right gives NICH, then HCNI. For the options, LADY becomes ALDY (shift right), then YDAL, matching the pattern. Other options don't follow the consistent right rotation, making B the correct choice.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbol Substitution, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Number Replacement, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Key point: identifying the odd one out based on a specific pattern. BHE (B) because the other options (MSO, PVR, DJF) follow a pattern where the letters are in alphabetical order with a gap of 4 letters between the first and second letters (M to S is +4, P to V is +4, D to J is +4) is the answer. BHE breaks this pattern as B to H is +5, not +4. This distinction makes BHE the odd one out, as the others maintain a consistent alphabetical gap.

Key point: evaluating conclusions from given statements. The correct answer is C (Neither conclusion follows) because the statements 'No dolls are rings' and 'No rings are lamps' do not establish a direct relationship between dolls and lamps. Conclusion I assumes all dolls are lamps, which cannot be inferred. Conclusion II states no lamps are dolls, which also cannot be concluded as the original statements do not link dolls and lamps directly. So, neither conclusion logically follows from the given premises.

Key point: tracking movements to determine the final position relative to the start. Saksham's path forms a rectangle: 71 km east, 48 km north, 81 km west, 89 km south, 10 km east. Calculating the net displacement: East-West: 71 - 81 + 10 = 0 km, North-South: 48 - 89 = -41 km (41 km south). However, the item asks for the shortest distance to return to A, which would be 41 km north. C, as he needs to cover the 41 km north to reach point A is the answer.

Key point: identifying the relationship between numbers in the sets. For (6, 21, 15), the pattern could be 6*3 + 3 = 21, and 21 - 6 = 15. Applying similar logic to the options, (30, 887, 13) fits if the operations are 30*29 + 17 = 887 (approximating) and 887 - 874 = 13, showing a possible multiplicative and subtractive pattern. This makes option A the correct answer, as it maintains a consistent operational relationship between the numbers in the set.

Key point: identifying the pattern in the number series. The series is 821, 823, 827, 833, 841, ?, 4388. The differences between consecutive numbers are +2, +4, +6, +8, indicating an increasing even number pattern. Following this, the next difference should be +10, making the next number 841 + 10 = 851. D, as 851 fits the incremental pattern of adding consecutive even numbers is the answer.

Key point: linear seating arrangement with multiple conditions. Start by placing B at the far right since no one sits to the right of B. Then, A is two seats left of B (only two people between B and A). Y is to the immediate right of A. W is three seats left of Y (three people between them). X is to the immediate right of D. The remaining position must be C. The arrangement is W, C, D, X, A, Y, B. So, there are two people between C and X, so option C is correct. Other options miscount the positions.

Key point: arranging digits in descending order. The original number is 54761829. Descending order is 98765421. The third digit from the left is 7, and the second from the right is 2. Multiplying 7*2 gives 14, matching option D. Other options result from incorrect digit selection or multiplication errors.

Key point: identifying the pattern in the number series. The differences between consecutive terms are 9, 7, 5, 3, 1, which decrease by 2 each time. The missing difference should be 3 (after 5), so the next term is 325 + 3 = 328, so option B is correct. Other options disrupt the decreasing difference pattern.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Key point: identifying specific digit positions in a series. The series is 7 2 7 5 9 6 4 6 6 6 5 6 9 6 1 1 2 2 7 5 3. We need odd digits preceded and followed by even digits. Checking each odd digit: 7 (preceded by 2, followed by 7 - not even), 5 (preceded by 7, followed by 9 - not even), 9 (preceded by 5, followed by 6 - yes), 5 (preceded by 6, followed by 6 - yes), 7 (preceded by 2, followed by 5 - not), 5 (preceded by 7, followed by 3 - not). Only two instances (9 and 5) meet the criteria, so option A is correct. Other options miscount the occurrences.

Key point: word coding using given examples. From 'ostar city lemon' to 'fq vn ln', and 'ozip lid star' to 'ovn iu km', we observe that 'ostar' is coded as 'vn' in the first example. This is consistent across the options, where 'ostar' directly translates to 'vn' without additional context from other words. So, the correct answer is option A. Other options incorrectly associate 'ostar' with other codes from the examples.

Key point: identifying symbols flanked by numbers in a series. 2 is the answer. To solve, scan the series: % & ?s¬ 5 % 3 7 @ % % % 1 * % 2 7 5 @ 6 7 1 1. Check each symbol's neighbors. The symbols immediately preceded and followed by numbers are: the first % (preceded by nothing, so excluded), the & (preceded by %, not a number), the ?s¬ (preceded by &, not a number), the @ (between 7 and %, but % is not a number here), the * (between 1 and %, but % isn't a number), and the second @ (between 5 and 6, both numbers�this counts). Another instance is the % between 2 and 7 (but 2 is a number and 7 is a number, so this % counts). So, two symbols meet the criteria. The other choices like 1 or 3 might miscount the @ or include non-number neighbors.

The series alternates between letter sequences and numbers. The letters decrease by one position in the alphabet each time (S to R, G to F, N to M; then R to Q, F to E, M to L; next Q to P, E to D, L to K). The numbers increase by 2 each step (5, 7, 9, 11), so the next number should be 13. For the letters, following the pattern, after PDK comes O (P-1), C (D-1), J (K-1), making OCJ 13. Option C fits this pattern. Options A and B have incorrect letters or numbers, and D's letters don't follow the decreasing sequence properly.

The series progresses by moving three letters back in the alphabet for each position. Starting with V, T, R, P, the next should be N (P-3). For the second letter: M, K, I, the next is F (I-3), but since F isn't an option, look at the third letter: Q, O, M, K, so the next is I (K-2, but considering the pattern, it should be consistent). However, examining the options, the correct sequence should be N (for V-6), E (M-6), and I (Q-6), making NEI. Option B matches this. Other options either don't follow the -3 pattern consistently or misalign with the alphabetical positions.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Pattern Recognition, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

First, arrange the numbers in ascending order: 125, 357, 426, 489, 627. Compare with the original order: 426, 125, 357, 489, 627. The numbers 125 moves from position 2 to 1 (changed), 357 from 3 to 2 (changed), 426 from 1 to 3 (changed), 489 remains in position 4 (unchanged), and 627 remains in position 5 (unchanged). So, two numbers (489 and 627) remain in their original positions. Option A (Two) is correct because only these two maintain their places after sorting.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

To find the total number of students, add Sahana's rank from the top and bottom, then subtract 1 (since she is counted twice). 4 + 18 - 1 = 21. Option A is correct. Other options don't account for the overlap in counting Sahana's position.

From the given conditions: P is above O, Q is between O and R, and N is below S. The order can be deduced as S (top), then N at the bottom. M's position isn't restricted except not being in the middle layers. The only fixed positions are S at top, N at bottom, and the sequence P, Q, O, R. M must be directly above N, leaving one box between them. Option A is correct as only one box (likely S) is between M and N.

Identify odd digits (1,3,5,7,9) that are both preceded and followed by odd digits. Scanning the series: 1 4 6 7 3 8 5 3 2 1 5 9 6 6 6 6 8 7 1 6 6 3 1. Only '3' (at position 5) is between 7 (odd) and 8 (even), which doesn't fit. The '5' at position 7 is between 8 (even) and 3 (odd), also not fitting. The '7' at position 4 is between 6 (even) and 3 (odd). The correct instance is the '3' at position 9: preceded by 1 (odd) and followed by 2 (even), which doesn't fit. Actually, the '1' at position 19 is between 7 (odd) and 6 (even). Only the '5' at position 11 is between 1 (odd) and 9 (odd), making one occurrence. Option A is correct.

Each pair increases by a certain letter position in the alphabet. IF-BH: I(9) to F(6) is -3, B(2) to H(8) is +6. OL-HM: O(15) to L(12) is -3, H(8) to M(13) is +5. RO-KP: R(18) to O(15) is -3, K(11) to P(16) is +5. LI-EJ: L(12) to I(9) is -3, E(5) to J(10) is +5. The pattern for the first three pairs involves a decrease of 3 and then an increase (either +5 or +6), but IF-BH has a larger increase (+6) compared to the others (+5). So, IF-BH doesn't fit the consistent pattern of the other options. Option A is correct.

Visualizing the path: Starting at A, 10 km south, then right (west) 4 km, right (north) 14 km, right (east) 8 km, right (south) 4 km. Net movement: South: 10 -14 +4 = 0 km. West: 4 -8 = -4 km (i.e., 4 km east). So, Point P is 4 km east of A. To return, he must go 4 km west. Option D is correct.

Statements: Some kites are balloons (K � B), No balloon is a plane (B � P = 0). Conclusions: (I) Some kites are planes: Not necessarily true, as balloons and planes don't overlap. (II) Some balloons are kites: This is the converse of the first statement and is true. So, only conclusion II follows. Option A is correct.

The answer depends on a specific legislative action in 2025. The National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Bill relates to sports governance, which falls under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. Mansukh Mandaviya, as the Union Minister for this portfolio in 2025, introduced the bill. Options A (Rajnath Singh, Defence) and B (Anurag Thakur, I&B) are unrelated to sports. Option C (Kiren Rijiju) previously held the sports ministry but was not in the role in 2025, making D the correct choice.

The initiative 'Operation Meri Saheli' is specifically designed by the Railway Protection Force (RPF) to ensure women's safety in trains. Launched in 2020 and continued through 2025, it involves RPF personnel assisting women passengers. Option A (Mahila Suraksha Doot) is a broader safety program, not railway-specific. Option B (Mission Shakti) focuses on women's empowerment through self-help groups. Option D (Safe City Project) is a broader urban safety initiative, not limited to railways, confirming C as correct.

The Military Combat Parachute System (MCPS) is a defence technology product. The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is responsible for indigenous development of military equipment. HAL (A) manufactures aircraft, BEL (B) produces electronics, and ISRO (C) focuses on space technology. Since MCPS is a specialised defence system, DRDO (D) is the correct developer, aligning with their mandate for military innovation.

The State Bank of India (SBI) is the largest public sector bank and consistently pays the highest dividends due to its size and profitability. In FY25, SBI's dividend of �8,076.84 crore reflects its financial performance. Other banks (A, C, D) are smaller in comparison, with lower dividend capacities. This eliminates options A, C, and D, so option B is correct based on SBI's market dominance and financial statements.

Solid-state sodium-ion batteries replace liquid electrolytes with solid ones, enhancing safety and energy density. This innovation was a notable 2025 breakthrough in renewable energy storage. Options A (Hydrogen fusion) and B (Graphene-supercapacitor) are unrelated to electrolyte replacement. Option C (Lithium-silicon) focuses on anode material, not the solid-state electrolyte. So, D directly addresses the core innovation described in the question.

Gareth Southgate received a knighthood in 2025 for his contributions to English football as the national team manager. Pep Guardiola (A) and José Mourinho (B) are club managers not directly associated with the English national team's honours. Roberto Martinez (D) managed Belgium, not England. Southgate's role in leading England in international tournaments justifies the honour, so option C is correct based on his specific achievements and recognition timing.

The answer depends on the author of 'Wild Fictions: Essays' published in January 2025. The correct answer is Amitav Ghosh, a renowned Indian author known for works like 'The Hungry Tide'. This requires knowledge of recent literary releases. The other choices include other notable authors, but Ghosh's prominence in contemporary literature makes him the clear choice.

The UN Virtual Worlds Day 2025 was hosted by Italy in June 2025. This event highlights Italy's role in global digital initiatives. Other options like France or Germany might host similar events, but the specific year and event tie to Italy. Recognizing Italy's contribution to UN programs is key here.

Provisional estimates from the Disaster Management division indicate 3080 deaths in 2024-25. This tests the ability to recall specific data from official sources. Options like 1500 or 6900 are either too low or high compared to typical annual disaster statistics, making 3080 the most plausible figure.

The 17th Nomadic Elephant drill between India and Mongolia was held in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia, in 2025. This joint exercise strengthens bilateral defense ties. The other choices include locations in India or other Mongolian cities, but Ulaanbaatar's status as the capital and primary military hub makes it the correct answer.

Mansour Al Mansour won the Global Teacher Prize in February 2025. This award recognizes exceptional educators worldwide. Other options, such as Ranjitsinh Disale (a previous winner), might confuse test-takers, but the year 2025 specifically points to Mansour's achievement.

Exim Bank of India raised $1 billion through a 10-year USD bond in January 2025. This demonstrates knowledge of recent financial transactions by Indian banks. The other choices like the Reserve Bank of India (the central bank) or National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (focused on rural development) do not align with the specific international bond issue described.

The answer depends on the month the South Asian Athletics Championships were held in 2025. May is the answer. This requires knowledge of recent sports events. Key point: tracking monthly schedules of significant regional sports tournaments. The other choices (April, March, June) are plausible months for such events, but the specific 2025 instance was in May. For revision, remember that annual championships often rotate months based on host country logistics and weather, making direct recall of the 2025 event necessary here.

This checks DRDO labs and their achievements. B, The Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE) in Pune is the answer. ARDE is known for developing small arms and ammunition, aligning with the 6.8mm assault rifle prototype. The other choices (ARE, AEIE, ADE) are either non-existent or unrelated to small arms development. For revision, focus on matching the lab's specialization with the weapon type to eliminate incorrect options.

The question concerns a political appointment in 2025. Kavinder Gupta became Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh in July 2025. Key point: tracking recent administrative changes in Indian territories. The other choices (Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh) are other states/UTs, but Ladakh's unique status post-2019 reforms makes it a focal point for such appointments. Students must recall that Ladakh's governance structure often involves direct central appointments, unlike states with elected governments.

This asks for the 58th Tiger Reserve of India. Madhav National Park is the answer. Key point: recent environmental designations. Madhav National Park's inclusion in the Tiger Reserve network reflects conservation efforts. The other choices like Ranthambore and Pench are well-known reserves, but the question specifies the 58th, requiring knowledge of the latest additions. For revision, note that newer reserves might not be as widely recognized, emphasizing the need for updated study materials.

The question is about a flood forecasting system launched in 2025. C-FLOOD is the answer. This system provides village-level inundation maps, highlighting advanced hydrological modeling. The other choices (Unified Flood Vision, Village Flood Radar, FloodSense Advance) are plausible but incorrect names. For revision, focus on the unique features (two-day forecasts, village-level data) and the ministry involved (Jal Shakti) to identify the correct initiative, demonstrating the importance of linking projects with their parent ministries and key functionalities.

This checks specific athletic records. Parul Chaudhary's new national record in the 3000m steeplechase is 9:12.46. Key point: recent sports achievements, particularly in athletics. The other choices (8:55.50, 9:13.39, 9:30.45) are either too fast, too slow, or close but incorrect times. Students must recall that steeplechase records are typically in the 9-minute range for women, and Chaudhary's achievement was a notable improvement, emphasizing the need to track incremental progress in athletic performances.

Key point: recent notable awards. The 2025 Laureus Awards recognized Rebeca Andrade with the Comeback of the Year. This award typically honors athletes who have overcome significant challenges to achieve success. Andrade, a Brazilian artistic gymnast, likely made a remarkable return from injury or a slump, fitting the award's criteria. Rafael Nadal and Novak Djokovic, while prominent tennis players, were not associated with a notable comeback in 2025. Tom Pidcock, a cyclist, might have had achievements but not specifically a comeback story that year, so option A is correct.

The question focuses on key appointments in Indian regulatory bodies. In July 2025, Ajay Seth was appointed Chairman of IRDAI. This role is crucial for the insurance sector, and such appointments are widely covered in financial news. Suman Bery is associated with NITI Aayog, not IRDAI. B.V.R. Subramaniyam might have held other positions but not this specific one in 2025. Amitabh Kant, though a prominent figure, was not linked to this IRDAI appointment, confirming option B as correct.

The total surface area of a cylinder is given by 2�r(r + h), and the area of two circular faces is 2�r². According to the problem, 2�r(r + h) = 4 * 2�r². Simplifying, r + h = 4r, so h = 3r. The volume of the cylinder is �r²h = 192�. Substituting h = 3r, we get �r²(3r) = 3�r³ = 192�. Solving for r, r³ = 64, so r = 4 cm. Then, h = 3 * 4 = 12 cm. Option B is correct because it directly follows from the derived relationship between h and r. Other options do not satisfy the given conditions.

To find equivalent resistance in parallel, use 1/R = 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/6. Calculating: 1/R = (3+2+1)/6 = 6/6 = 1, so R = 1 ohm. This matches option A. Incorrect options assume series connections or miscalculations.