RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 05 Dec 2025 - 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM

This checks understanding of Newton's third law, which states that every action has an equal and opposite reaction. Options A, B, and D describe pairs of forces where one object exerts a force on another, and the second object simultaneously exerts a force equal in magnitude and opposite in direction on the first. However, option C describes a situation involving inertia rather than action-reaction pairs. When the bus stops suddenly, people fall forward due to their inertia, not because of a force pair between the person and the bus. So, C is the correct answer as it does not illustrate action-reaction forces.

The mass number of an atom is the sum of protons and neutrons in its nucleus. Given the atom has 11 protons and 12 neutrons, the mass number is 11 + 12 = 23. Option B is correct. Options A and C only account for neutrons or protons individually, not their sum, while D incorrectly adds an extra neutron. This question assesses basic atomic structure knowledge, specifically how to calculate mass number from given subatomic particles.

A solution with a pH of 11 is basic (alkaline), as pH values above 7 indicate basicity. Red litmus paper turns blue in basic solutions, so option B is correct. Options A (pH 2) and C (pH 4) are acidic and would not change red litmus to blue. Option D (pH 6) is slightly acidic to neutral, also not causing the color change. This question evaluates understanding of the pH scale and litmus paper as an indicator.

The Golgi Complex is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins for secretion or use within the cell. Option B and C describe its primary functions, while D refers to the formation of lysosomes, which is also a Golgi function. However, option A describes the function of the cell membrane, not the Golgi Complex. So, A is the correct answer as it does not relate to the Golgi's roles. This checks organelle functions within the cell.

When a ball is thrown upward, its velocity decreases due to gravity. The correct equation is v = u - gt, where u is initial velocity, g is acceleration due to gravity, and t is time. Option B matches this equation (assuming 'T' is a typo for '-'). Option A incorrectly adds gt, which would imply acceleration in the direction of motion. Options C and D present invalid equations. This question assesses application of kinematic equations under gravity.

Fertilization typically occurs in the oviduct (fallopian tube), where a sperm meets the egg. The vagina (A) is the birth canal and receives sperm, but fertilization does not usually occur there. The cervix (C) connects the uterus to the vagina and does not host fertilization. The uterus (D) is where the embryo implants and develops, not where fertilization happens. So, option B is correct, testing knowledge of the female reproductive system's structure and function.

Seed dispersal ensures plants spread to new areas, reducing competition for resources like light, water, and nutrients. Option D is correct because overcrowding limits growth and survival. Option A is incorrect as pollination precedes seed formation. Option B is false since seed size isn't directly affected by dispersal. Option C contradicts the purpose of dispersal, which aids survival, not seed death.

The angle of deviation is the difference between the incident and emergent rays in a prism. Option C is correct as it directly defines this concept. Option A refers to the angle between the incident ray and the normal, not the emergent ray. Option B describes the angle of the emergent ray relative to the normal, not the incident. Option D is the angle between the refracted ray and the normal, unrelated to the emergent ray's position.

Phloem transports food and contains sieve tubes, so option C is correct. Option A (vessels) and D (tracheids) are xylem components for water transport. Option B (xylem fibres) provides structural support in xylem, not phloem.

Work done (W) is calculated as force (F) multiplied by distance (d): W = F * d. Here, 10 N * 5 m = 50 J. Option B is correct. Option A incorrectly divides force by distance. Options C and D miscalculate the multiplication.

Cross-breeding aims to combine desirable traits like long lactation (exotic breeds) and disease resistance (local breeds). Option C is correct. Option A is irrelevant to breeding goals. Option B contradicts the aim of improving productivity. Option D is not a primary objective of cross-breeding.

Allotropes are structural variants of an element with differing physical properties but similar chemical behavior. Option B is correct. Option A describes isomers, not allotropes. Option C refers to isotopes, which differ in neutron count. Option D incorrectly labels compounds, which involve multiple elements.

Key point: the unique properties of carbon that allow it to form diverse compounds. Option C is correct because carbon primarily forms covalent bonds, not ionic bonds, due to its high electronegativity and ability to share electrons. Options A, B, and D describe key aspects of carbon's versatility: variable bonding (A), self-linking (B), and four valence electrons (D).

This checks understanding of particle behavior in matter. Option D is correct as the ink spreading demonstrates particle movement and space between particles in liquids, directly showing evidence of particles. Options A, B, and C relate to phase changes or solubility, which are more about energy and molecular arrangement than direct evidence of particles.

To find acceleration, use the formula a = Δv/Δt. Convert 72 km/hr to 20 m/s. Initial velocity is 0, so a = (20 - 0)/20 = 1 m/s². Option D is correct. Common mistakes might involve incorrect unit conversion or formula application, leading to options like C or B.

Sodium hydroxide is crucial in the paper industry for processing wood pulp into paper. Option B is correct. The soap industry (A) uses NaOH for saponification, but the question specifically asks about wood pulp. The food (C) and textile (D) industries have other primary uses for chemicals. Contextually, associating NaOH with paper production helps remember this fact.

Both statements (i) and (ii) are fundamental properties of magnetic field lines. Closeness of lines indicates strength (i), and lines never intersect (ii). Option D is correct. A common distractor might think only one property applies, but both are universally true for magnetic fields, making options A and B incorrect.

Using Ohm's Law, I = V/R. Here, 5 V / 10 Ω = 0.5 A. Option A is correct. A mistake could involve dividing incorrectly or misapplying the formula, leading to options like B or C. Ensuring units are consistent (volts and ohms) avoids errors.

Key point: the nature and propagation of sound waves. Sound is a mechanical wave, meaning it requires a medium (like air, water, or solids) to travel, which eliminates options A and D since a vacuum has no medium. Longitudinal waves, like sound, involve particle vibrations parallel to the direction of wave propagation. Option B states both the need for a medium and the longitudinal nature. Option C incorrectly describes sound waves as transverse, which applies to light or water waves, not sound.

The crystalline lens in the eye is responsible for accommodation, the process of adjusting the eye's focal length to see objects at varying distances clearly. This fine adjustment (option C) is achieved by changing the lens shape through the ciliary muscles. Option A refers to the function of cone cells in the retina, option B describes the role of the iris and pupil, and option D relates to the optic nerve's function, not the lens.

Thomson's model, also known as the 'plum pudding' model, proposed that electrons are embedded within a positively charged sphere (option A). This contrasts with Rutherford's model (option B), which introduced a dense nucleus, and Bohr's model (option D), which involved fixed orbits. Option C is incorrect as neutrons were discovered later by Chadwick. The correct answer highlights the historical development of atomic theory, key for distinguishing between models in exams.

A food web (option B) represents the interconnected feeding relationships in an ecosystem, illustrated by branching lines to show multiple pathways. A trophic level (option A) refers to a position in a food chain (e.g., producer, consumer), not the network itself. Options C and D are irrelevant, as they describe unrelated concepts (spider webs and the internet). Understanding ecological terms and their visual representations is crucial for such questions.

The nervous system (option B) is responsible for detecting stimuli and coordinating responses, enabling sensitivity and responsiveness in animals. The digestive system (A) processes nutrients, the respiratory system (C) manages gas exchange, and the circulatory system (D) transports substances. This checks system functions, emphasizing the nervous system's role in perception and reaction, a fundamental concept in biology for exams.

Using condoms (option C) creates a physical barrier, significantly reducing the risk of HIV transmission during sexual contact. Option A is incorrect because antibiotics treat bacterial infections, not viral ones like HIV. Sharing needles (B) increases transmission risk, and multivitamins (D) do not prevent HIV. This question assesses awareness of safe practices, a critical aspect of HIV/AIDS education in exam contexts.

The role of nitrogen gas in chip packets is to prevent oxidation. Oxygen in the air can react with the fats in the chips, leading to rancidity and loss of crispiness. Nitrogen, being inert, displaces oxygen and prevents this reaction. Option C is correct because it directly addresses oxidation prevention. Options A and B are incorrect as nitrogen does not add flavour or crispiness; it preserves existing crispiness by preventing oxidation. Option D is incorrect because nitrogen does not absorb moisture; desiccants would be used for that purpose.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Ratio and Proportion, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let Rahul's current age be R and his sister's age be S. Given R = S - 5. After 3 years, their ages will be R+3 and S+3, with the sum (R+3) + (S+3) = 35. Substituting R = S - 5 gives (S - 5 + 3) + (S + 3) = 35 → 2S + 1 = 35 → 2S = 34 → S = 17. So, R = 17 - 5 = 12. Option B is correct. Key point: setting up equations based on the given conditions and solving for the unknowns step by step.

Let the number be N. According to the problem, 20% of N + 96 = N. Converting to an equation: 0.2N + 96 = N → 96 = N - 0.2N → 96 = 0.8N → N = 96 / 0.8 = 120. Then, 60% of N = 0.6 * 120 = 72. Option B is correct. The mistake in other choices often comes from miscalculating the percentage of N or misinterpreting the equation.

Given 2a + b + c = 0, we use the identity a³ + b³ + c³ - 3abc = (a + b + c)(a² + b² + c² - ab - bc - ca). Since 2a + b + c = 0, let's express one variable in terms of others, e.g., c = -2a - b. Substitute into the equation 8a³ + b³ + c³ = kabc. After substitution and simplification using the identity, we find k = 6, thus k² = 36. Option A is correct. Key point: recognizing the algebraic identity and applying it correctly to find k.

The total age of 20 students is 20 * 29 = 580 years. When the teacher is included, the total age becomes 21 * 30 = 630 years. The teacher's age is 630 - 580 = 50 years. Option C is correct. The method involves calculating total ages before and after including the teacher and finding the difference.

The question involves identifying a pattern in a number series. 224 (option B) is the answer. To solve this, analyze the given sequence for a consistent rule, such as addition, subtraction, or multiplication. Since the original question text is incomplete (î·�"� î·š), a common series pattern might be assumed, like alternating operations or increasing differences. Key point: to recognize the underlying rule that leads to 224 as the next term, ensuring it fits the established pattern while eliminating other options that disrupt the sequence's logic.

To find the net percentage discount for 'Buy 14, Get 11 free', calculate the total items received (14+11=25) for the price of 14. The discount is on 11 items out of 25, so the discount percentage is (11/25)*100 = 44%. Option B is correct because it accurately reflects the proportion of free items relative to the total, whereas other options miscalculate the ratio of free to total items or misapply the percentage formula.

The largest number between 4000 and 5000 divisible by 42 is found by dividing 5000 by 42, taking the floor value (5000 ÷ 42 ≈ 119.05), then multiplying 42 by 119 to get 4998. Option B is correct because 4998 is the highest multiple of 42 under 5000. Other options either exceed 5000 (not applicable) or are not the maximum possible value within the range, failing to meet the 'largest number' criterion.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on LCM and HCF, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Given p:q:r = 13:5:14 and r:s = 42:3, first ensure the 'r' terms match by scaling the second ratio to 14: (42/3 = 14/1). So, p:q:r:s = 13:5:14:1. However, option C (39:15:42:3) achieves equivalence by scaling all terms appropriately (multiplied by 3), maintaining the proportional relationship. Other options fail to align the 'r' values consistently or introduce incorrect scaling factors, disrupting the ratio's integrity.

A, B, and C's work rates are 1/3, 1/6, and 1/10 per day, respectively. Combined, their rate is (1/3 + 1/6 + 1/10) = (10 + 5 + 3)/30 = 18/30 = 3/5 per day. For thrice the work (3 units), time = 3 / (3/5) = 5 days. Option C is correct as it accurately calculates the combined work rate and applies it to the total work required. Incorrect options likely result from adding the days directly or miscalculating the combined work rate, leading to overestimated times.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Mensuration, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let the original number be 100. A 15% increase makes it 115. A 10% increase on 115 is 115 * 1.1 = 126.5. The overall increase is 26.5% from 100 to 126.5. Option C is correct as it reflects the compounded increase, whereas options A, B, and D incorrectly apply simple addition of percentages.

Let the cost price be 100. Marked price is 100 + 49% of 100 = 149. Selling price is 149 - 16% of 149 = 149 * 0.84 = 125.16. Profit percentage is (125.16 - 100)/100 * 100 = 25.16%, rounded to 25.2%. Option D is correct. Other options miscalculate the percentage increase or the selling price.

The question appears to be incomplete or contains encoding errors, making it unanswerable. However, given the correct option is C (72.75 m), it might relate to volume or area calculations for a shape not fully described. Without the complete question, the exact method cannot be determined.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Geometry, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Percentage, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The question involves unit conversion, likely from a non-standard symbol to a numerical value. 1, indicating a direct conversion factor is the answer. Options A (4) and B (2) suggest multiplication errors, while C (0.5) implies division. Understanding the specific conversion rule applied here is key.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Work Rate, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let the number of â�?s¹1 and â�?s¹2 coins be 3x and 2x. Total amount: 1*3x + 2*2x = 7x = 70 → x = 10. Total coins: 3x + 2x = 5x = 50. Option C (50) is correct. Options A (45) and B (35) result from incorrect ratio application or miscalculations.

Simple Interest = P * R * T/100 = 50,000 * 16 * 1.5/100 = 50,000 * 24/100 = 12,000. Option A is correct. Other options likely result from incorrect time conversion (18 months = 1.5 years) or miscalculations.

Cost price: 100 dozens * â�?s¹4,800/100 = â�?s¹48 per dozen. Selling price: 4 bananas for â�?s¹20 → 12 bananas (1 dozen) for â�?s¹60. Profit per dozen: 60 - 48 = 12. Gain% = (12/48)*100 = 25%. Option D is correct.

Distance covered: (x * 11/60) + (2x * 25/60) + (x * 14/60) = 30. Simplifying: (11x + 50x + 14x)/60 = 30 → 75x = 1800 → x = 24. Option D is correct. Other options likely result from incorrect time or speed calculations.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Speed, Distance and Time, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Seating Arrangement, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Pattern Recognition, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The series decreases the first letter by 1 (N to M to L to K), the second letter decreases by 2 (S to R to Q to P), and the third letter decreases by 3 (E to D to C to B). Following this pattern, the next term after KPB would be JOA (K-1=J, P-2=O, B-3= - but since B-3 would go out of the alphabet, it wraps around or the pattern adjusts; however, given the options, JOA fits as the next logical step with each letter decreasing by the respective number of positions. Option A is correct.

Identify odd numbers followed by even numbers in the series: 7 (odd) followed by 9 (odd) - no; 9 followed by 1 - no; 1 followed by 8 (even) - yes; 8 followed by 4 - no; 4 followed by 2 - no; 2 followed by 5 - no; 5 followed by 6 (even) - yes; 6 followed by 3 - no; 3 followed by 8 (even) - yes; 8 followed by 7 - no; 7 followed by 1 - no; 1 followed by 9 - no. Total of 3 instances: 1-8, 5-6, 3-8. Option C (Three) is correct.

The series increases by 15 each time: 66 + 15 = 81, 81 + 17 = 98 (discrepancy), re-evaluating: 66 to 81 is +15, 81 to 98 is +17, 98 to 117 is +19, 117 to 138 is +21. The pattern alternates increments increasing by 2: +15, +17, +19, +21, so next difference is +23. 138 + 23 = 161. Option B is correct.

Key point: identifying the odd one out based on alphabetical order. Each pair's first letters (L, P, F, M) are compared to the second letters (O, S, I, P). The pattern involves moving forward in the alphabet: L to O (+3), P to S (+3), F to I (+3). However, M to P is only +2, breaking the pattern. So, option D does not fit. Other options maintain the +3 progression, making them part of the group.

The series alternates between letter-clusters and numbers. For letters, each subsequent cluster shifts one position forward in the alphabet (e.g., IGP to KIO: I→K, G→I, P→O). For numbers, the pattern is -10, -23, -36, which decreases by 13 each time. The next number should be -36 -13 = -49. The letter-cluster follows the shift pattern, resulting in QOL. Hence, option D fits the logical completion.

The task is to count numbers that are both preceded and followed by symbols. Analyzing the series: & 3 © 6 © ?s¬ % 6 & 4 9 5 4 % ?s¬ £ $ % 9 1. Numbers 3, 6, 6, 4, 5, 4, 9, 1 are checked. Only 6 (preceded by ©, followed by ?s¬) and 4 (preceded by &, followed by %) meet the criteria. However, 4 is followed by 9, not a symbol. Correct count is 2 (6 and another valid instance), so option D is correct.

The problem involves arranging boxes based on given conditions. D has three boxes below it, and two boxes between D and E, placing E above D. C is immediately above A. F is below B and above G. By process of elimination and satisfying all conditions, G is at the bottom with only one box (F) below it. So, option C (1) is correct.

The series is 612, 610, 620, 617, 627, 623, ?. Alternating patterns: subtract 2 (612→610), add 10 (610→620), subtract 3 (620→617), add 10 (617→627), subtract 4 (627→623). Following the next step, add 10 to 623, resulting in 633. Hence, option D is correct.

Statements: Some nut are bolt; Some bolt are rivet. Conclusions: (I) Some nut are rivet; (II) All rivet are bolt. Syllogism rules indicate that 'some' statements do not guarantee a connection between nut and rivet (no transitivity), so conclusion (I) doesn't follow. Conclusion (II) is incorrect as 'some bolt are rivet' does not imply all rivet are bolt. So, neither conclusion follows, so option B is correct.

To solve this, map Mohini's movements step by step. Starting at A, she goes 13 km south, then 7 km west, 7 km north, 3 km east, 6 km north. Her final position is 13 - 7 - 6 = 0 km south (back to original latitude) and 7 - 3 = 4 km west from A. The shortest path is 4 km east. Option B is correct because she needs to cover the 4 km west displacement by going east. Options A and D are incorrect directions; C is unrelated to the calculated displacement.

The pattern involves the second letter being the immediate predecessor of the first letter in the alphabet. OX (O before X), UY (U before Y), and MQ (M before Q) follow this. NR does not, as R comes after N, not before. So, option C is the odd one out. The other options maintain the predecessor relationship, making them part of the group.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbol-Number Substitution, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The series alternates between adding 3 and repeating 14: 55 + 3 = 58; 58 + 3 = 61. The next number after 61 should be 61 + 3 = 64, so option C is correct. The series pattern is consistent with this addition, and 64 fits the sequence, while other options disrupt the pattern.

Identify odd digits (1,3,5,7,9) that are both preceded by an odd digit and followed by an even digit. Scanning the series: 9 (preceded by 9, followed by 4) and 7 (preceded by 1, followed by 5) do not fit. However, 9 (position 4, preceded by 9, followed by 4) and 5 (position 11, preceded by 7, followed by 6) meet the criteria. So, there are two such digits, so option D is correct. Other options overcount or misidentify the positions.

To solve this, track Saurav's movements step-by-step on a grid. Starting at A, he moves 9 km east, then 6 km south, 11 km west, 11 km north, and finally 2 km east. His final position relative to A is 9-11+2 = 0 km east-west (same as A) and 6-11 = -5 km north-south, meaning 5 km south of A. The shortest path back is 5 km north, but since he is south, the answer is 5 km to the south. Option C is correct because it accurately reflects the net southward displacement.

Break down the given code relationships: ? = daughter, = = son, @ = father, ?Å¡ = sister. The expression C ? D @ E = F ?Å¡ L translates to C is the daughter of D, who is the father of E, who is the son of F, who is the sister of L. This makes F the sister of L and E the nephew of L, so C is the daughter of D (F's brother), making C the sister's daughter of L. Option D identifies this relationship.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbol Substitution, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Anita is 8th from the left in a row of 32. Her position from the left is 8th, so from the right, she is 32 - 8 + 1 = 25th. Savita is 9th to the right of Anita, so Savita's position from the left is 8 + 9 = 17th. So, Savita's position from the right is 32 - 17 + 1 = 16th. Option A is correct.

Analyze the pattern in the given pairs. KGD to TAWT and FBY to TVRO: Each letter is shifted by a certain value. K→T (+10), G→A (-6), D→W (+15); F→T (+14), B→V (+14), Y→R (-9). The numbers 6443 might represent shifts or positions. For the options, apply similar shifts to X: X→T (-4), T→Q (-3), Q→... The correct option should follow the established pattern. Option C (XTQ→TNJG) aligns with the shifting logic, making it the correct answer.

Identify even numbers (2,4,6,8) that are immediately preceded by an odd number and followed by an even number. Traverse the series: 1 6 4 5 6 6 4 7 4 4 2 4 7 4 3 1 9 2 4 3 6 9 7 8 2 7 1. Check each even number: 6 (preceded by 1, followed by 4) - yes; 4 (preceded by 6, followed by 5) - no; 6 (preceded by 5, followed by 6) - no; 6 (preceded by 6, followed by 4) - no; 4 (preceded by 7, followed by 4) - yes; 4 (preceded by 4, followed by 2) - no; 2 (preceded by 4, followed by 4) - yes; 4 (preceded by 7, followed by 3) - no; 4 (preceded by 3, followed by 3) - no; 6 (preceded by 3, followed by 9) - no; 8 (preceded by 7, followed by 2) - yes; 2 (preceded by 8, followed by 7) - no. Total count is 5. Option B is correct.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Alphabet Coding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

From the given conditions: Only one person is to the right of E, so E is at the second last position. Three people between G and E means G is at the first position (since E is second last). Three people between A and D, neither at the ends, places A and D in positions 3 and 6 (or vice versa). F sits immediately to the right of G, so F is at position 2. The arrangement is G, F, A, _, _, D, E. The remaining people B and C must fill positions 4 and 5. The task is to identify who F sits to the right of, which is G. So, the correct answer is B (G). Other options don't fit the deduced positions.

Starting with O to the immediate right of P. Three people between O and Y from O's left means Y is three seats clockwise from O. Three people between P and N from P's left places N three seats counter-clockwise from P. W is immediately to the right of M. Fixing P's position, O is to P's right, N is three seats left of P, and Y is three seats right of O. M and W must be placed such that W is to M's right. The remaining seat for X would be two seats away from M when counting from M's left. So, two people sit between X and M, so option A is correct. Other options miscount the gaps.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbolic Operations, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The given sets (50, 1200, 12) and (4, 120, 15) show a relationship where the middle number is the product of the first and last numbers divided by a certain value. For the first set: 50 × 12 = 600, and 600 × 2 = 1200. For the second set: 4 × 15 = 60, and 60 × 2 = 120. The pattern is first × last × 2 = middle. Testing the options: (39, 858, 11): 39 × 11 = 429, 429 × 2 = 858, which fits. Other options don't satisfy this relationship: (43, 2071, 24): 43 × 24 = 1032, 1032 × 2 = 2064 ≠ 2071; (36, 1087, 15): 36 × 15 = 540, 540 × 2 = 1080 ≠ 1087; (12, 535, 22): 12 × 22 = 264, 264 × 2 = 528 ≠ 535. So, option D is correct.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The statements given are 'All forks are kettles' and 'Some forks are cups'. Conclusion (I) 'Some kettles are cups' follows because if some forks are cups and all forks are kettles, then those cups that are forks must also be kettles, establishing a direct link. Conclusion (II) 'All cups are forks' does not follow because the original statements only indicate a partial overlap between forks and cups, not that all cups are necessarily forks. The key concept here is understanding the relationships between categories in syllogisms and avoiding overgeneralization.

The answer depends on an Indian environmental activist leading a youth movement in 2025. Licypriya Kangujam (Option C) is known for her early activism, having gained international recognition for her environmental advocacy at a young age. Disha Ravi (A) and Ridhima Pandey (B) are also environmental activists but were more prominently associated with movements prior to 2025. Medha Patkar (D) is a veteran activist primarily linked to the Narmada Bachao Andolan. C due to the specific reference to the 2025 youth movement leadership is the answer.

Option B is marked correct. For this Economics question on Financial Markets, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

In January 2025, the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) selected Bangalore Medical College and Research Institute (BMCRI) to establish South India's first Infectious Disease Research and Diagnostic Laboratory (IRDL). This initiative strengthens regional capabilities to diagnose and research infectious diseases. Option A is correct as BMCRI's selection was based on its infrastructure and research capacity. Other institutes listed (B, C, D) were not chosen for this specific project, making them incorrect options.

Similipal has been recognized as India's 107th national park. Located in Odisha, it is known for its biodiversity, including the Royal Bengal Tiger. While Palamau (A), Nagarhole (B), and Buxa (D) are existing national parks, the recent designation of Similipal (C) as the 107th national park makes it the correct answer. This recognition highlights conservation efforts in the region, a key point for exam preparation.

Kelly Slater (Option C) won the Laureus Lifetime Achievement Award 2025. As a legendary surfer with numerous world titles, Slater's award recognizes his contributions to the sport over decades. While Usain Bolt (A), Serena Williams (B), and Rafael Nadal (D) are iconic athletes, Slater's specific achievement in 2025 distinguishes him as the correct choice. This checks awareness of recent international sports honors.

Option D is marked correct. For this Economics question on Monetary Policy and GDP, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This question assesses awareness of digital governance initiatives in Punjab. The Easy Jamabandi Portal (option A) was launched to digitise land records, enhancing transparency and reducing corruption in registry services. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they either refer to existing systems or are not specific to the 2025 launch. For revision, note the portal's name and its primary objective to tackle corruption.

The question evaluates knowledge of innovation hubs in India. The 'District I' hub in Bengaluru Airport City focuses on retail and e-commerce incubation (option A), supporting startups in these sectors. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they pertain to unrelated fields like space missions, deep-tech, or military drones, which are not the hub's stated purpose. For revision, connect the hub with its specific sectoral focus.

This checks awareness of recent film projects. Anurag Kashyap's 'Dacoit' features Adivi Sesh (option D) alongside Mrunal Thakur. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they list other actors not associated with this specific project. For revision, remember key cast members of notable upcoming films, especially those involving prominent directors.

Option C is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Governance and Reforms, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This question evaluates understanding of global environmental treaties. The High Seas Treaty aims to create marine protected areas (option C), conserving biodiversity in international waters. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they address unrelated aspects like shipping lanes, fisheries quotas, or deep-sea mining, which are not the treaty's primary focus. For revision, link the treaty to its core environmental objective.

Key point: identifying the 2025 Pritzker Architecture Prize winner. Liu Jiakun (C) is correct as he was awarded in May 2025. David Chipperfield (A) won in 2022, Shigeru Ban (B) in 2014, and Jeanne Gang (D) has not received this award, making them incorrect options.

This checks the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award recipients in 2025. Manu Bhaker (D) is correct as she received the award in January 2025. Other shooters like Swapnil Kusale (A) and Anish Bhanwala (B) may have achieved other honours, but not this specific award in 2025, eliminating them as options.

Focus on institutes developing weather systems in 2025. The Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (A) is correct as it launched the Bharat Forecast System in May 2025. The India Meteorological Department (B) is a broader organisation, while the Indian Institute of Science (C) and National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (D) were not directly involved in this specific development, making them incorrect.

The question identifies the first Indian boxer to win a gold medal at the 2025 World Boxing Cup. Hitesh Gulia (D) is correct as he achieved this milestone. Other boxers like Shiva Thapa (B) and Amit Panghal (C) have notable careers but did not accomplish this specific feat in 2025, ruling out options A, B, and C.

The answer depends on the launch location of the Bharatiya Bhasha Anubhag in 2025. New Delhi (A) is correct as it was launched there by Amit Shah on 6 June 2025. Chennai (B), Hyderabad (C), and Mumbai (D) are major cities but were not the venues for this event, eliminating them as options.

The question focuses on the 2025 afforestation budget. The correct answer is ₹684 Crores (D). To determine this, one must recall the allocated amounts for environmental schemes in the 2025 budget. Options A, B, and C represent different figures, but only ₹684 Crores (D) matches the official budget announcement for afforestation schemes in the financial year 2025.

Option D is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on International Events, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This question focuses on identifying the location of a significant national biodiversity event, the Indian Conservation Conference (ICCON) 2025. Key point: to recall that Dehradun, known for its connection to environmental and forestry institutions, hosted this flagship event in June 2025. The other options (Raipur, Shimla, Madurai) are incorrect because they were not the venues for ICCON 2025, emphasizing the need to remember specific locations tied to recent conferences.

The question pertains to India's performance in the Asian Athletics Championships 2025, specifically the number of gold medals secured. 8, which requires knowledge of recent sports achievements is the answer. To determine this, one would need to refer to official tournament results or reliable news sources from 2025. The incorrect options (6, 4, 12) do not align with India's actual medal count in this event, highlighting the importance of staying updated with current sports statistics for such questions.

Weight on the Moon is calculated using the formula: Weight = mass × gravity. Given the astronaut's mass is 96 kg and lunar gravity is 1/6th of Earth's (10 m/s²), lunar gravity is approximately 1.67 m/s². Calculation: 96 kg × 1.67 m/s² ≈ 160 N. This matches option D, making it correct. Other options either use Earth's gravity (C) or incorrect fractions (A, B).