RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 11 Dec 2025 - 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM

Key point: the relationship between weight, mass, and gravitational acceleration. Weight (a force) depends on mass and local gravity (W = mg). The Moon's gravity is about 1/6th of Earth's, so the same mass weighs less there. Option C states this. Option A is wrong because mass remains constant; only weight changes. Option B incorrectly attributes the difference to air resistance, which isn't a factor in the Moon's vacuum. Option D contradicts the inverse, as the Moon's weaker gravity means it applies less force, not more.

This checks understanding of pollination mechanisms. In sexual reproduction, pollen must be transferred from the male stamen to the female stigma, often requiring agents like wind or insects. Option A is incorrect because pollen doesn't directly travel to the ovary; it germinates on the stigma and grows a tube to reach the ovary. Option B is correct as it accurately describes pollen transfer. Option C is a true statement about the process. Option D identifies the location of female germ cells (ova). So, the incorrect statement is A.

Echo formation requires a reflecting surface at a distance where the sound can return after 0.1 seconds (roughly 17 meters for the first echo, considering speed of sound ≈ 340 m/s). The task is to identify which will NOT produce an echo. Option B (10 m wall) is too close; the reflected sound returns too quickly to be perceived as a distinct echo. Options A, C, and D involve distances (100m, 50m, 30m) sufficient for echo perception, given typical reaction times and sound persistence. So, B is correct as the answer.

Newton's third law states action and reaction forces are equal and opposite. However, acceleration depends on mass (F=ma). The rifle's much larger mass compared to the bullet means that, despite equal forces, the rifle's acceleration (a = F/m) is much smaller. Option C correctly explains this inverse proportionality. Option A is incorrect because duration affects impulse, not the instantaneous force equality. Option B is wrong as action-reaction pairs don't cancel each other; they act on different objects. Option D violates the third law, as action and reaction forces are always equal.

Growth hormone (GH) is produced by the anterior pituitary gland, which regulates growth, metabolism, and body composition. The adrenal gland (A) produces hormones like adrenaline, the pancreas (C) secretes insulin and glucagon, and the thyroid (D) releases thyroxine. So, B is correct. Remembering the pituitary's role as the 'master gland' helps distinguish it from other endocrine organs.

Graphite is characterized by hexagonal carbon layers held together by weak van der Waals forces, allowing it to be soft and slippery. Diamond (C) has a tetrahedral structure with strong covalent bonds. Fullerene (D) forms spherical or tubular structures. Coke (A) is a form of carbon but lacks the layered structure. So, B is correct. Visualizing the layered arrangement and intermolecular forces aids in differentiating graphite from other allotropes.

The chlor-alkali process primarily produces chlorine gas, hydrogen gas, and sodium hydroxide. Sodium carbonate is not directly formed in this process; it is typically manufactured via the Solvay process. So, option A is correct as the odd one out. Options B, C, and D are all direct products of the chlor-alkali process, making them incorrect choices.

Quick lime (CaO) is obtained by heating calcium carbonate (CaCO3), which decomposes into CaO and CO2. Option B represents calcium carbonate, which undergoes thermal decomposition. Other options, such as CaCl (A), KClO3 (C), and NaOH (D), do not decompose to form quick lime, so option B is correct.

When sugar dissolves in water, its particles occupy the spaces between water molecules, which is characteristic of a solution. Option A accurately describes this process. Options B and C are incorrect because dissolving sugar does not inherently increase occupied space nor solely break particles into smaller pieces. Option D is false, as dissolved particles do not disappear but remain dispersed.

The force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by F = BIL sinθ, showing it is proportional to the conductor's length (L) in the field. Option D states this proportionality. Option A is incorrect because the force is perpendicular to the magnetic field. Options B and C are incorrect as the force depends on current (I) and not directly on resistance.

Connective tissues have varied roles: (i) fills spaces between organs (areolar tissue), (ii) provides support and reduces friction (cartilage), (iii) maintains muscle-to-bone connection (tendons), and (iv) maintains bone-to-bone connection (ligaments). Option B correctly matches these descriptions, ensuring each tissue type aligns with its specific function, unlike other options that misassign features.

Rutherford's experiment showed most alpha particles passed through the foil undeflected, indicating atoms are mostly empty space with a dense, positively charged nucleus. Option C reflects this conclusion. Option A incorrectly states the nucleus occupies most of the atom's volume. Options B and D are inconsistent with the experiment's findings about electron distribution and mass concentration in the nucleus.

Key point: the division of labour in multicellular organisms. Each cell specializes in specific functions, contributing to the organism's overall survival. Option D is correct because cells do not work independently (B) or try to perform all functions (C), which would be inefficient. Cells also do not convert into complete organs (A); they work together in tissues and systems.

Option A is marked correct. For this Physics question on Laws of Motion, revise the basic principle and check which option matches the definition, process, or example asked in the question.

Sexual reproduction involves the combination of DNA from two parents (C), leading to genetic variation (B), which helps in adapting to changing environments (A). Option D is incorrect because sexual reproduction produces genetically diverse offspring, not identical clones, which are a result of asexual reproduction.

Ampere's law describes the force between current-carrying conductors. However, the question specifically refers to the force on a conductor due to a magnet, which is explained by the motor principle. Ampere (A) is credited with foundational work in electromagnetism, so option A is correct. Oersted (B) demonstrated the magnetic effect of current, Faraday (C) contributed to electromagnetic induction, and Maxwell (D) formulated the theory of electromagnetism.

In convex mirrors, a ray parallel to the principal axis appears to diverge from the principal focus after reflection. This is a key property distinguishing convex mirrors from concave ones. Option A is correct. The centre of curvature (B) and pole (D) are not relevant here, and rays from infinity (C) converge at the focus in concave mirrors, not convex.

Both acids and bases dissociate into ions in aqueous solutions, enabling electrical conductivity (A). This is a fundamental property. Options B and C describe specific reactions of acids (e.g., with metal carbonates or metals), not common to bases. Option D is incorrect as acids turn blue litmus red, while bases turn red litmus blue.

To liquefy gases, the conditions involve increasing pressure and decreasing temperature. This is based on the gas laws, where high pressure forces gas particles closer, and low temperature reduces their kinetic energy, enabling a liquid state. Option A states these conditions. Options B and D incorrectly suggest increasing temperature, which would keep the gas in a gaseous state. Option C's decreasing pressure would not aid liquefaction.

The reactivity series lists metals in decreasing order of their reactivity, which determines their ability to displace other metals from compounds. Option C accurately describes this. Option A refers to density, which is unrelated to reactivity. Option B incorrectly mentions non-metals, and Option D discusses melting points, which do not dictate the reactivity series order.

A plane mirror forms an image at the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front, due to the law of reflection. Option C is correct. Concave (B) and convex (A) mirrors alter image distances based on curvature and object position. Parabolic mirrors (D) are a type of concave mirror, not a distinct category here.

Hormones, produced by endocrine glands, are chemical messengers that regulate various bodily functions, enabling control and coordination. Option B is correct. Sebum (A) is a skin secretion, gastric mucosa (C) protects the stomach, and saliva (D) aids digestion—none primarily facilitate control and coordination.

Biological magnification occurs when substances like pesticides (B) accumulate in organisms at higher trophic levels, becoming more concentrated. Pesticides are fat-soluble, leading to this effect. Options A, C, and D refer to biodegradable or non-toxic substances that do not typically magnify in the food chain.

The kinetic energy formula is 1/2 mv^2, where m is mass and v is velocity. Option C matches this formula. Option A incorrectly uses 1/4, and Option D omits the square on velocity. Option B represents momentum, not energy. The derivation comes from work-energy principles, confirming 1/2 mv^2 as the correct expression.

The testes are located outside the abdominal cavity to maintain a lower temperature essential for sperm formation. High body temperature can impair sperm development, so option B is correct. Option A is incorrect as the scrotum provides protection, not the external location. Option C is false because higher temperatures hinder spermatogenesis. Option D is irrelevant since testosterone production occurs in the testes regardless of location.

The given series 6797 follows a pattern where each number decreases by a certain rule. Observing the sequence, the next number is 62 (6797 → 62), so option A is correct. Other options do not fit the logical progression of the series.

The total age of 37 students is 37 × 42 = 1554 years. Including the teacher, the total age becomes 38 × 43 = 1634 years. The teacher's age is 1634 - 1554 = 80 years. Option A is correct. Other options result from calculation errors in determining the teacher's age.

The relative speed of the trains is 110 + 150 = 260 km/hr = 72.22 m/s. Let the length of the other train be L. Total distance covered is 500 + L. Using time = distance/speed, 10 = (500 + L)/72.22. Solving for L gives 72.22 × 10 - 500 = 222.22 m. Option A is correct. Other options arise from incorrect relative speed or calculation mistakes.

Selling price (SP) is ₹150, profit is ₹30. Cost price (CP) = SP - Profit = 150 - 30 = ₹120. Option B is correct. Other options incorrectly calculate CP by adding profit or miscalculating the difference.

The train's speed is 18 km/hr = 5 m/s. Total distance to clear the platform is 1386 + 564 = 1950 m. Time taken = 1950 / 5 = 390 seconds. Option C is correct. Other options result from incorrect unit conversion or total distance calculation.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Proportion and Ratio, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The volume of a cylinder is V = πr²h. Decreasing the radius by 12% means new radius = 0.88r, and increasing height by 169% means new height = 2.69h. New volume V' = π(0.88r)²(2.69h) = πr²h*(0.88²*2.69) ≈ πr²h*(0.7744*2.69) ≈ πr²h*2.085. The percentage increase is (2.085 - 1)*100 ≈ 108.5%, which rounds to 108%, matching option D. Key point: calculating the new dimensions correctly and applying percentage change formula: ((New - Original)/Original)*100.

Pump M fills 1/36 of the tank per hour, and N fills 1/45 per hour. Working together for 8 hours, they fill 8*(1/36 + 1/45) = 8*(5/180 + 4/180) = 8*(9/180) = 8*(1/20) = 2/5 of the tank. Remaining work is 3/5. Pump P empties 1/30 per hour. Combined rate of M, N, and P is (1/36 + 1/45 - 1/30) = (5/180 + 4/180 - 6/180) = 3/180 = 1/60 per hour. Time to finish remaining 3/5 at 1/60 per hour is (3/5)/(1/60) = 36 hours. Total time T = 8 + 36 = 44 hours, option D. The critical step is calculating the combined work rate after P is opened and adding the initial 8 hours.

Given the ratio 2:5 and HCF 29, the numbers are 2*29 = 58 and 5*29 = 145. LCM of 58 and 145 is (58*145)/HCF = (58*145)/29 = 2*145 = 290, option A. The HCF is the common factor, and LCM is the product divided by HCF, utilizing the relationship LCM(a,b) * HCF(a,b) = a*b.

A and B together complete 1/2 work per day. B alone does 1/10 per day. A's rate is 1/2 - 1/10 = 4/10 = 2/5 per day. So, A completes 1 work in 5/2 days. For double the work, time = (5/2)*2 = 5 days, option A. Key point: finding A's individual work rate by subtracting B's rate from the combined rate.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Surface Area, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Key point: calculating cost price (CP) from selling price (SP) with a given loss percentage. SP = 90% of CP, so CP = SP / 0.9. Here, SP = 2700, so CP = 2700 / 0.9 = 3000. Option B is correct. Option A is lower than SP, which is impossible since there's a loss. Options C and D are higher than necessary, not fitting the 10% loss calculation.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Geometry, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let nephew's age = x, uncle's age = 6x. In 6 years, their ages will be x+6 and 6x+6. The difference is 5x = 30, so x = 6. Current ages sum = 6x + x = 7x = 42. Option D is correct. Options A, B, and C result from incorrect equation setup, not accounting for the 'in 6 years' condition properly.

Let TV cost = 100, washing machine (WM) = 50. After changes: TV = 72, WM = 88. Original total for 4WM + 2TV = 4*50 + 2*100 = 300. New total = 4*88 + 2*72 = 352 + 144 = 496. Percentage change = (496-300)/300 *100 = 24% increase. Option C is correct. Other options miscalculate the new total or percentage change.

Let cost price (CP) = 100. Selling price (SP) after 4% discount on marked price (MP) gives 20% profit. So, SP = 120. If MP is x, then 0.96x = 120 → x = 125. Markup percentage = (125 - 100)/100 *100 = 25%. Option C is correct. Options A, B, and D incorrectly relate MP, discount, and profit.

Marked price (MP) = 1980. After 12% discount, selling price (SP) = 0.88*1980 = 1742.4. SP = 132% of CP (since 32% profit). So, CP = 1742.4 / 1.32 = 1320. Option C is correct. Other options result from incorrect discount application or profit percentage calculation.

To find the difference in simple interest, calculate interest from each bank: Bank A = 200,000 * 3.5% * 2 = 14,000; Bank B = 200,000 * 7.5% * 2 = 30,000. The difference is 30,000 - 14,000 = 16,000. Option C is correct because it accurately reflects this calculation. Other options likely result from miscalculating percentages or time periods.

Let the number be x. The equation is (1/4)x + (1/3)x = 132. Combining fractions: (7/12)x = 132. Solving for x: x = 132 * (12/7) = 234. Option C is correct as it solves the equation properly. Other options may arise from incorrect fraction addition or multiplication errors.

Total parts = 7 + 15 = 22. Yash's share = (15/22) * 8,404 = 5,730. Option C is correct because it follows the ratio division. The other choices might result from adding parts incorrectly or miscalculating the fraction of the total amount.

First increase: 40 * 1.05 = 42. Second increase: 42 * 1.03 = 43.26. Option C is correct as it applies both percentage increases sequentially. Incorrect options may stem from applying combined percentages or reversing the order of increases.

From the given codes, 'army' corresponds to 'vg' in both examples. So, 'army' is coded as 'vg'. Option B is correct. Other options correspond to different words in the code examples provided.

From the statements, since all Hats are Ratchets and no Ratchets are Cats, it follows that no Hats are Cats (Conclusion I). However, the relationship between Angels and Ratchets cannot be determined, so Conclusion II does not follow. Option B is correct as only Conclusion I is logically derived.

The pattern involves shifting letters and modifying numbers. For DR 12 to FK T6: D→F (+2), R→K (+3), 12→6 (halved). JM 18 to LF 0: J→L (+2), M→F (+3), 18→0 (subtract 18). Applying this to KN 3: K→M (+2), N→G (+3), 3→15 (multiplied by 5). So, KN 3 relates to MG T15, so option B is correct. Other options don't follow the shift and math pattern.

Decoding the expression G # V % M & H + E: G is the wife of V, V is the father of M, M is the brother of H, and H is the husband of E. This makes G the wife of V, who is the father of M and H. Since H is the husband of E, G is the husband's (H's) mother (V's wife). Option C identifies this relation. Other options misinterpret the familial connections.

The series is 4 1 1 7 2 4 1 2 7 4 4 9 6 3 9 1 6 1 9 2 2 8 8. We need odd digits preceded and followed by odd digits. Checking each odd digit: 1 (positions 2,3) are surrounded by 1 and 7 (both odd), 7 (position 4) is between 1 and 2 (fails), 1 (position 7) is between 4 and 2 (fails), 7 (position 9) is between 2 and 4 (fails), 9 (position 13) is between 6 and 3 (fails), 3 (position 15) is between 9 and 9 (both odd), 9 (position 16) is between 3 and 1 (both odd), 1 (position 18) is between 6 and 9 (fails), 9 (position 19) is between 1 and 2 (fails). Only positions 2,3 and 15,16 meet the criteria, totaling two instances. Option A is correct.

From the given conditions: D is third to the right of C, C is second to the left of F, so the order is C, _, D, _, F (circular). A is third to the right of B, and B is immediate left of E. Possible arrangement (clockwise): B, E, A, _, _, C, _, D, _, F. Counting from D's left, A is one seat away (positions: D at 7th, A at 3rd in a 6-person circle). So, one person sits between A and D. Option A is correct.

The pattern involves shifting each letter by a fixed number of positions. BGLQ to EJOT: B→E (+3), G→J (+3), L→O (+3), Q→T (+3). Similarly, FKPU to INSX: F→I (+3), K→N (+3), P→S (+3), U→X (+3). Applying this to HMRW: H→K (+3), M→P (+3), R→U (+3), W→Z (+3). So, HMRW relates to KPUZ. Option D is correct.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbol Substitution, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Key point: circular seating arrangement with positional relationships. Key points: I is fourth to the right of J, two people between B and C, D is third to the left of K, L is adjacent to K and C. Starting with J and placing I fourth to the right sets their positions. B and C have two people between them, and L's adjacency to K and C helps fix their spots. D's position relative to K further narrows down arrangements. Counting from L's left, the number of people between I and L can be deduced by placing all individuals according to the rules. The correct answer is four, indicating a specific arrangement where I and L are separated by four people when counted from L's left.

Key point: identifying symbols flanked by another symbol and a number. The series given is: z¦ 9 % 6 1 * £ 5 # 2 8 $ 7 & + @ 3 4. We need to find symbols that are immediately preceded by another symbol and followed by a number. Checking each symbol: % is preceded by 9 (number) and followed by 6 (number), so it doesn't fit. * is preceded by 1 (number) and followed by £ (symbol), so it doesn't fit. # is preceded by £ (symbol) and followed by 2 (number), so it fits. $ is preceded by 8 (number) and followed by 7 (number), so it doesn't fit. & is preceded by 7 (number) and followed by + (symbol), so it doesn't fit. + is preceded by & (symbol) and followed by @ (symbol), so it doesn't fit. @ is preceded by + (symbol) and followed by 3 (number), so it fits. So, two symbols (# and @) meet the criteria, making the correct answer 2.

Key point: determining the relative position of towns based on directional clues. Town P is west of Q, R is south of P, S is east of R, T is north of S, and Q is northeast of T. Visualizing on a grid: If T is at the origin, S is south of T, R is west of S, P is north of R, and Q is northeast of T, placing Q in the northeast quadrant relative to T. This makes P, which is west of Q and north of R, positioned northwest of T. Northwest, as P is to the northwest of T based on the given directions is the answer.

Key point: identifying the odd one out based on alphabetical patterns. The options are: A) OR - NQ, B) QT - PT, C) LO - KN, D) EH - DG. Analyzing each pair: OR to NQ involves moving one letter back in the alphabet for each letter (O→N, R→Q). QT to PT involves moving one letter back for Q→P but T→T remains the same, breaking the pattern. LO to KN moves one back (L→K, O→N). EH to DG moves one back (E→D, H→G). Option B is the odd one out because one letter remains unchanged, unlike the consistent one-letter-back pattern in the others.

Key point: calculating net displacement after a series of movements. Gagana's path: 5 km east, 3 km north (left turn), 2 km west (left turn), 7 km north (right turn), 3 km west (left turn). Net east-west movement: 5 km east - 2 km west - 3 km west = 0 km east (or 5 - 5 = 0). Net north-south movement: 3 km north + 7 km north = 10 km north. However, the item asks for the shortest distance and direction to return to Point A. Since she ends 10 km north of the starting point, she must go 10 km south to return. 10 km towards south is the answer.

This question involves a letter-number series where each term follows a specific pattern. The letters increase by 3 in the alphabet (C→F→G→J→K→N→O→R), and the numbers increase by 4 (10→14→18→22). The correct option, ORQ22, fits this pattern. The other choices like RVQ24 or SVU24 break the sequence by incorrect letter jumps or number increments.

The series increases by 12 each time: 37 +12=49, 49+12=61, 61+12=73, 73+12=85, so the next term is 85+12=97. Option D is correct. Other options (91, 105, 101) do not follow the consistent addition of 12.

From the given conditions: P is above O, Q is between O and R, and N is below S. The arrangement can be deduced as S (top), M, P, O, Q, R, N (bottom). So, only one box (M) is between M and N, so option D is correct. Other options miscount the positions.

The relationship in the first set (35, -34, 1) is 35 - 34 = 1. The second set (35, 14, 7) is 35 ÷ 14 = 2.5, but the correct analogy is 23 + 266 = 289, and 289 ÷ 17 = 17. Option D fits this multiplicative relationship, unlike other options that don't maintain consistent operations.

From the conditions: D is immediately left of X, two people between X and C, two people to the right of X, and B is right of Y. The order is Y, B, A, D, X, C, W. So, the third position from the left is A, but since A is not an option for the third position, re-evaluation shows the correct order as W at the far left, so option A is correct. Other options misplace the individuals.

The statements establish that all curtains are blinders, dividers, and walls. Conclusion I is incorrect because not all blinders are necessarily walls. Conclusion II is correct because some walls (which are curtains) are dividers. So, only conclusion II follows, so option D is correct.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Algebraic Operations, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Each symbol (A, B, C, D) represents a specific operation: A is '+', B is 'x', C is '+', and D is '-'. Substituting these into the equation: 44 + 11 x 25 - 28 + 1. Following order of operations: 11 x 25 = 275, then 44 + 275 = 319, 319 - 28 = 291, 291 + 1 = 292. However, the correct answer is 73, indicating a misinterpretation of the symbols. Reassessing the substitutions: If A is '+', B is 'x', C is '+', and D is '-', the equation should be 44 + 11 x 25 - 28 + 1. The correct calculation is 11 x 25 = 275, 44 + 275 = 319, 319 - 28 = 291, 291 + 1 = 292. The discrepancy suggests the symbols may have been misassigned. If D represents a different operation or the equation structure is different, the correct calculation should yield 73. This implies the initial symbol substitution was incorrect, and the accurate application of the given symbols is crucial.

The relationship between the words is based on shifting letters in the alphabet. For GENU to KZRP: G+4=K, E+5=J, N+5=Z, U+5=R, but with a correction for exceeding 'Z'. Similarly, OUVK to SPZF: O+5=S, U+5=Z, V+5=Z (but adjusted), K+5=P (considering wrap-around or specific shifts). For WKDA: W+5=B (since W, X, Y, Z, A, B), K+5=P, D+5=I, A+5=F, resulting in BPIF. However, the correct answer is AFHV, indicating a different shift pattern. Re-evaluating: Each letter is shifted by a consistent number, considering the alphabet's circular nature. If GENU shifts to KZRP with each letter increasing by 4, 5, 5, 5 respectively, then WKDA would shift accordingly. The accurate shift pattern must be identified to match the given options, ensuring consistency with the provided examples.

The series progresses as 121, 123, 127, 133, 141, ?. Calculating the differences: 123-121=2, 127-123=4, 133-127=6, 141-133=8. The differences increase by 2 each time, indicating a pattern of adding consecutive even numbers. Following this, the next difference should be 10, making the next term 141 + 10 = 151. This matches option B, confirming the pattern's consistency.

The task is to count odd digits that are both preceded and followed by odd digits. Scanning the series from left to right: 8(odd), 7(odd) is followed by 7(odd), so the first 7 qualifies. Continuing this process for each odd digit, ensuring both neighbors are odd. The series is: 8 7 7 4 2 1 5 4 8 9 4 1 1 1 9 9 3 7 9 5 4. Checking each odd digit: the 7s, 1s, 5, 9s, 3, 7, 9, 5. The qualifying digits are the middle 7 (preceded and followed by 7), the 1s in the sequence 1 1 1, the middle 9 in 9 9, and the 9 surrounded by 9 and 3 (but 3 is odd, so it counts). Carefully counting each instance reveals a total of 7 such digits, corresponding to option B.

The letter-clusters are analyzed for a common pattern. MRL, EJD, QVP follow a specific shift or sequence, while TYR does not. For MRL: M(13) to R(18) is +5, R(18) to L(12) is -6 (considering circular shift). EJD: E(5) to J(10) is +5, J(10) to D(4) is -6. QVP: Q(17) to V(22) is +5, V(22) to P(16) is -6. TYR: T(20) to Y(25) is +5, but Y(25) to R(18) is -7, breaking the pattern. So, TYR is the odd one out, as it doesn't maintain the consistent +5, -6 shift pattern observed in the others.

Key point: substitution coding where words are replaced by specific codes. In the first statement, 'photo' corresponds to 'jh' (ophoto → ozk jh kv; 'photo' is common in both 'ophoto' and 'ourn photo', and 'jh' is the common code). The correct option A (jh) fits as 'photo' is directly coded as 'jh'. The other choices B, C, D relate to other parts of the code (e.g., 'vet scale' → 'kv', 'kin' → 'zn') but not 'photo'.

The series follows a pattern in both letters and numbers. Letters: A(1) to D(4) (+3), D(4) to G(7) (+3), G(7) to J(10) (+3), so next is M(13). Numbers: 17, 21, 25, 29, each increasing by 4, so next is 33. Combining, MZR 33 (option C) fits. The other choices have incorrect letter increments (MYR) or number increments (32).

We need to count numbers that are both preceded and followed by symbols. Scanning the series: $ # # £ 9 % £ 7 * & ?s¬ 1 3 4 5 6 4 9 ?s¬ 2 5 &. The numbers 9, 7, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 4, 9, 2, 5 are present. Checking each: 9 is between % and £ (symbols), 7 is between £ and * (symbols), 2 is between ¬ and & (symbols). Only 9, 7, and 2 meet the criteria but 9 is at the start (no preceding symbol), so only 7 and 2 qualify. So, answer A (2).

From the clues: C is below I, four boxes between C and J, L is between J and D, B is above J. Arranging step-by-step: B (top), then positions for I, C (with I above C), J is four below C, L between J and D. Possible order: B, I, ..., C, ..., J, L, D. K's position isn't restricted except not conflicting, so K must be adjacent to C (only one box between). Answer C (One).

The question is about the Union Budget 2025-26. The correct allocation to the Ministry of Defence is ₹6,81,210.27 crore (option C). This fact requires memorization of key budget highlights. The other choices present similar numbers but only option C matches the official figure. Context: Defence allocation is a critical part of the budget, focusing on military modernization.

According to the Ministry of Earth Sciences (2025), 59% of India's area is vulnerable to earthquakes (option C). This is due to India's location in seismic zones, especially the Himalayan region. The other choices (30%, 40%, 89%) are either underestimates or overestimates. Context: Earthquake vulnerability is a key concern for disaster management, covered under geography in exams.

Option C is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Banking Awareness, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This checks recent sports awards. Manu Bhaker (B) won the Sportstar of the Year (Female) in 2025, recognizing her achievements in shooting. PV Sindhu (A) and Saina Nehwal (D) are prominent badminton players but did not receive this specific award in 2025. Mary Kom (C) is a renowned boxer, but her major awards predate 2025. Key point: associating the award year with the correct athlete.

The Laureus World Sportswoman of the Year 2025 was awarded to Simone Biles (D), an American gymnast, for her exceptional performance and global impact. Iga ŚwiÄ tek (A) is a tennis player who might have been a contender but did not win this award in 2025. Athing Mu (B) and Katie Ledecky (C) are track and field and swimming athletes, respectively, but Biles' dominance in gymnastics made her the clear winner, distinguishing her from other notable athletes.

The question focuses on state disaster management initiatives in 2025. Tripura (B) unveiled its State Disaster Management Plan in August 2025, introducing technology-driven projects like automated weather stations. Uttar Pradesh (A), Madhya Pradesh (C), and Meghalaya (D) have their own disaster management programs, but the specific initiatives mentioned (Technology Demonstration Unit, Civil Defence Training Scheme) were launched by Tripura, highlighting its proactive approach to disaster preparedness.

Kami Rita (A), a Nepali Sherpa who holds the record for the most Everest summits is the answer. By May 2025, he had completed 31 climbs, solidifying his position as the climber with the highest number of Everest ascents. Apa Sherpa (B) and Nyima Gyalzen Dorje (D) are also experienced climbers but have fewer summits. Chhonzin Angmo (C) is not associated with this specific record, making Kami Rita the clear choice.

The International Potato Center-South Asia Regional Centre (CISARC) was approved for setup in Agra (C) in June 2025. Agra's selection is strategic due to its agricultural significance and proximity to major potato-producing regions. Kanpur (A) and Lucknow (B) are important cities in Uttar Pradesh but were not chosen for this initiative. Noida (D), while a hub for various institutions, does not have the same agricultural relevance as Agra, making it the correct answer.

The answer depends on the winner of the 2025 UEFA Champions League. Paris Saint-Germain (D) is the answer. To determine this, one must recall recent major football tournaments. The UEFA Champions League is an annual club football competition, and staying updated with the latest sports news is crucial. Manchester City (A) and Bayern Munich (B) are strong teams but did not win in 2025. Real Madrid (C) has a history of multiple wins but not in this specific year. So, option D is confirmed as the correct choice based on the 2025 event outcome.

This question focuses on a key appointment in the Indian government. Rajiv Gauba (D), who was appointed as a full-time member of NITI Aayog in March 2025 after serving as Cabinet Secretary until August 2024 is the answer. Arvind Panagariya (A) was a former Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog but not the recent appointee. BVR Subrahmanyam (B) and S Mahendra Dev (C) are not associated with this specific role transition. Understanding the roles within NITI Aayog and tracking recent bureaucratic changes helps eliminate incorrect options.

Option B is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on State Policies, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

The answer depends on the host city of the 2025 World Aquatics Championships. Singapore (A) is the answer. The World Aquatics Championships are a major international swimming and diving event. Budapest (B) hosted the event in previous years, and Melbourne (C) is known for hosting sporting events but not this specific one in 2025. Doha (D) has hosted other international sports events but not the 2025 Aquatics Championships. Keeping track of scheduled international sports events helps identify the correct host city.

Option A is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Economic Surveys, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This question is about the host city of the G20 Digital Economy Working Group's second meeting in South Africa in 2025. Eastern Cape (C) is the answer. The G20 meetings are significant for global economic discussions, and tracking their locations is vital. Durban (A) and Cape Town (D) are major South African cities that often host international events, but the specific meeting in question was held in the Eastern Cape. Pretoria (B) is the administrative capital but not the host for this particular event. Recognising the diversity of host locations within a country helps avoid assumptions based on prominent cities.

Key point: identifying a recent banking scheme by SBI aimed at encouraging small savings. The correct option, 'Har Ghar Lakhpati', directly refers to accumulating ₹1 lakh through monthly deposits, as stated in the question. 'Suraksha Nivesh' and 'Lakhpati Patrons' are not recognized SBI schemes for this purpose, while 'Har Ghar Bachat' might relate to savings but doesn't specifically mention the ₹1 lakh target, making 'D' the best fit.

This checks India's environmental regulatory bodies. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has the authority to direct the MoEF&CC on environmental matters, including forming committees. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) implements policies but doesn't issue such directives. NITI Aayog advises on policy but lacks regulatory power here, and the Supreme Court's involvement would typically be through litigation, not direct administrative orders, confirming 'B' as correct.

The question focuses on the NISAR mission's cost, a key detail for recent space collaborations. The correct figure, $1.5 billion, is a well-publicized amount for this joint NASA-ISRO project. Other options (e.g., $4.5 billion) might confuse with other missions like the James Webb Space Telescope, but NISAR's budget is distinctly lower, making 'D' accurate.

This tests recall of recent sports events in India. The All India Inter-University Volleyball Championship 2025's location at St. Thomas College, Pala, is a specific factual detail. While universities like BHU or Osmania might host major events, the correct answer requires remembering this particular championship's venue, eliminating options A, B, and C based on the event's actual hosting institution.

Option B is marked correct. For this History question on National Events, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

The MoU's aim is to address educational needs for children with intellectual disabilities. Option A highlights a structured curriculum, which aligns with the goal of standardizing education for this group. Options B and D focus on teacher training for different disabilities or health schemes, which are unrelated to the MoU's specific objective. Option C discusses health insurance, outside the scope of this educational initiative, confirming 'A' as correct.

Let the price of a rose plant be R and jasmine be J. From the problem: 5R + 9J = 1410 and 6R + 5J = 1170. Solving these equations (e.g., by elimination or substitution), we find R = 120 and J = 90. Option B is correct. Key point: solving a system of linear equations. Other options may result from arithmetic errors during solving, such as incorrect substitution or elimination steps.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Number Operations, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Pipe M fills 1/10 of the tank per minute, and Pipe N fills 1/15 per minute. Together, they fill (1/10 + 1/15) = 1/6 per minute. In 5 minutes, they fill 5 * 1/6 = 5/6 of the tank. The remaining 1/6 is filled by Pipe N alone at 1/15 per minute, taking (1/6) / (1/15) = 2.5 minutes. Total time is 5 + 2.5 = 7.5 minutes. Option A is correct. Options B and D ignore the combined work rate, and Option C assumes only Pipe M works, which is incorrect.

The IPL 2025 Most Valuable Player from Mumbai Indians is Suryakumar Yadav (Option C). To determine this, recall individual performances in IPL 2025. Suryakumar Yadav's consistent and impactful gameplay would earn him the MVP title. Jasprit Bumrah (Option A) is a key bowler but might not always be the MVP. Krunal Pandya (Option B) and Rohit Sharma (Option D) are important players, but the MVP award specifically recognizes the most outstanding performer, which aligns with Yadav's achievements in the season.