RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 11 Dec 2025 - 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM

Key point: ozone layer depletion caused by human activities. Option A is correct because chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in refrigerants and spray cans release chlorine atoms when broken down by UV light, which catalyze ozone destruction. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as conserving water, using solar energy, and composting do not directly contribute to ozone depletion; they are environmentally friendly practices.

Option B is marked correct. For this Chemistry question on Organic Chemistry, revise the basic principle and check which option matches the definition, process, or example asked in the question.

Kinetic energy is the energy of motion. If it's zero, the particle must be at rest (Option A), as kinetic energy depends on mass and velocity (KE = 0.5mv²). Options B, C, and D are incorrect: zero kinetic energy implies no velocity, so momentum (mv) cannot be maximum, and acceleration doesn't directly relate to kinetic energy being zero unless considering net work done.

A molecule of a compound consists of two or more different elements chemically bonded. Option B (Hâ''O) is correct as it contains hydrogen and oxygen. Options A (Nâ''), C (Hâ''), and D (Oâ'') are molecules of elements, not compounds, as they consist of only one type of atom.

A homologous series is characterized by compounds with the same functional group, general formula, and successive members differing by a -CHâ'' group. Option C accurately describes this. Option A refers to elements, not compounds. Option B incorrectly states different functional groups; homologous series have the same functional group. Option D describes structural isomerism, not a homologous series.

The sign convention for spherical lenses dictates that object distance is negative (Option A), focal length of convex lenses is positive (Option B), and concave lenses have negative focal lengths (Option C). Option D is incorrect because, by convention, object height is taken as positive when above the principal axis; the sign of height relates to image orientation, not object position.

Newton's second law states that the rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to the applied force. When an unbalanced force is applied, the object's momentum changes in the direction of the force. Option A describes this relationship. Option B is incorrect because momentum changes when a net force acts. Options C and D describe unrelated scenarios not directly tied to the law's definition.

A river lift system (B) is designed to pump water from rivers for irrigation, suitable for areas with irregular canal supply. Flood irrigation (A) is inefficient and depends on water availability. Sprinklers (C) are useful but don't address the supply issue. Wells (D) rely on groundwater, which may not be feasible near a river with irregular supply.

Acid rain is acidic. Blue litmus turns red in acidic conditions (C). Option A is incorrect as black isn't a standard litmus response. Option B would occur for neutral substances, not acids. Option D describes a possible reaction to strong acids but isn't the direct litmus test result.

Sexual reproduction (A) involves the fusion of male and female gametes, forming a zygote. Binary fission (B) and budding (D) are asexual methods. Cloning (C) is a form of asexual reproduction. The question directly references gamete fusion, making A the clear answer.

Chlorine has atomic number 17. Electron distribution follows 2n², so K (n=1): 2, L (n=2): 8, M (n=3): 7. Option B matches this. Option A incorrectly assigns M as 5, not filling the shell properly. Options C and D misrepresent the filling order or capacity of shells.

A voltmeter measures potential difference (C) across components. Option A refers to an ammeter's function. Option B relates to ohmmeter measurements. Option D describes a calorimeter's purpose. The question specifies connecting across terminals, directly indicating voltage measurement.

The nucleus is a critical organelle involved in cellular processes like reproduction, confirming option A. The nuclear membrane is indeed double-layered (B) and houses chromosomes (C). However, option D is incorrect because the nuclear membrane is selectively permeable with pores, not non-porous and rigid. This distinction is key to understanding nuclear function in transport and communication.

Option B is marked correct. For this Physics question on Gravitation, revise the basic principle and check which option matches the definition, process, or example asked in the question.

For a convex mirror, the centre of curvature is located behind the mirror. This is because convex mirrors curve outward, and the centre of curvature is the point from which the mirror's surface is drawn. Options A, C, and D incorrectly place it at the pole, principal focus, or in front, which are characteristics of concave mirrors or misunderstand the mirror's geometry.

The speed of sound (v) is calculated as the product of wavelength (λ) and frequency (f), given by v = λf. Option C identifies these two properties. Amplitude relates to loudness, not speed, eliminating options A, B, and D. Understanding this relationship is fundamental to wave mechanics and sound propagation.

A neuron's main components are dendrites (receive signals), cell body (integrates signals), and axon (transmits signals). Option D correctly lists these three parts. While nerve endings and synapses (options A, B, C) are associated with neurons, they are not considered the primary structural components. This distinction is crucial for identifying the core structure of a neuron.

The formula unit mass refers to the sum of atomic masses in a formula unit of a compound, as compounds are made of multiple elements in fixed ratios. Option C is correct. Elements (A) and atoms (B) do not have formula units, and mixtures (D) have variable compositions, making them incorrect. This concept is foundational to stoichiometry and molecular calculations.

The reaction between carbon dioxide (CO�) and calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)�), commonly known as lime water, results in the formation of calcium carbonate (CaCO�) and water (H�O). This reaction is a key test for the presence of CO�, as it causes the lime water to turn milky due to the insoluble CaCO�. Option A is correct because calcium carbonate is the direct product. Option B is incorrect as calcium bicarbonate is not formed in this reaction. Options C and D are unrelated to the reactants involved.

Fragmentation is the process where a new organism develops from a broken or detached portion of the parent plant or animal. This method is common in plants like Bryophyllum and certain algae. Option C is correct as it directly describes fragmentation. Option A refers to a method seen in prokaryotes, not plants. Option B involves spores, which are distinct from fragmentation. Option D is a sexual reproduction process, not asexual.

The outer skin is composed of stratified squamous epithelium, which provides protection against mechanical stress and pathogen entry. This tissue type is multi-layered and flat, adapting to constant wear and tear. Option B is correct due to these protective features. Option A lines internal surfaces like the stomach, not the outer skin. Option C is involved in secretion and absorption. Option D lines blood vessels and body cavities, lacking the stratified structure needed for skin.

Menstruation occurs in the human female when the egg is not fertilized, leading to the shedding of the thickened endometrium. This process is part of the menstrual cycle, ensuring the uterus is prepared for a potential pregnancy each month. Option B is correct as it directly relates to the unfertilized egg. Option A refers to childbirth, not a monthly process. Options C and D are stages post-fertilization, which do not occur without fertilization.

Resistance (R) is inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area (A) as per the formula R = �L/A, where � is resistivity and L is length. Since wire A has twice the cross-sectional area of wire B and all other factors are equal, its resistance is half that of B. So, the ratio RA:RB is 1:2. Option D correctly represents this inverse relationship. Options A and C incorrectly apply the proportionality, while Option B assumes equal resistance despite differing areas.

The item asks to select the correct statement but does not provide the specific statements A and B. Normally, such questions require evaluating the truthfulness of given statements. Since the correct answer is 'Both A and B', it implies that both individual statements are true based on the information given in the question, which is not fully visible here. The reasoning skill involves identifying the validity of each statement and combining the results. Without the actual statements, the focus is on understanding that 'Both A and B' being correct means each statement must be true independently.

A velocity-time graph with a negative slope indicates uniform deceleration. The slope's magnitude represents the acceleration's magnitude, and the negative sign shows it's opposite to the direction of motion. If the particle moves in the positive direction, a negative slope means it's slowing down. Option D is correct because it accurately describes this deceleration in the positive direction. Options A and B are incorrect as the particle isn't at rest, and the acceleration isn't increasing. Option C is incorrect because speeding up would require a positive slope in the direction of motion.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Profit and Loss, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The question seems incomplete as it only provides numbers without context. Assuming it's a speed calculation, the correct answer is 29 km/hr. Without the full problem, the reasoning is based on the given options and correct answer. Typically, such problems involve converting units or using the formula speed = distance/time. The provided numbers might relate to a specific scenario, but the key point is applying the speed formula correctly.

Let the cost price be CP. The first trader sells at 25% profit: Selling Price (SP1) = CP * 1.25. The buyer sells at 10% loss: SP2 = SP1 * 0.9 = 9900. So, CP * 1.25 * 0.9 = 9900. Solving for CP: CP = 9900 / (1.125) = 8800. Option A is correct. Other options don't satisfy the given conditions when calculated.

Let David's income be 5x and Ajay's be 8x. Their expenditures are (5x - 72000) and (8x - 72000), respectively. The ratio of expenditures is 1:4, so (5x - 72000)/(8x - 72000) = 1/4. Solving gives 20x - 288000 = 8x - 288000, leading to 12x = 0, which is incorrect. Re-evaluating: 4(5x - 72000) = 8x - 72000 � 20x - 288000 = 8x - 72000 � 12x = 216000 � x = 18000. David's income = 5x = 90000. Option C is correct.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Geometry, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let the cost of 1 cup be 'c' and 1 glass be 'g'. From the problem, 3c + 4g = 270 and 3c + 6g = 330. Subtract the first equation from the second to get 2g = 60, so g = 30. Substitute g = 30 into the first equation: 3c + 120 = 270 � 3c = 150 � c = 50. So, the cost of a cup is �50. Option B is correct because it directly solves for 'c'. Options A, C, D do not satisfy the equations.

The discount is 28% of �7,400. Calculate 28% of 7,400: 0.28 * 7,400 = 2,072. Subtract the discount from the cost price: 7,400 - 2,072 = 5,328. Option C is correct as it accurately calculates the selling price after the discount. Other options miscalculate the percentage or subtraction.

When two objects move in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum. Convert speeds to m/s: 45 km/hr = 12.5 m/s, 63 km/hr = 17.5 m/s. Total relative speed = 12.5 + 17.5 = 30 m/s. Total distance covered = 170 + 220 = 390 m. Time = distance/speed = 390/30 = 13 seconds. Option C is correct. Other options use incorrect speed conversions or calculations.

The total age of 43 students is 43 * 13 = 559 years. Including the teacher, the total age becomes 44 * 14 = 616 years. The teacher's age is 616 - 559 = 57 years. Option C is correct as it properly applies average formulas. Other options result from incorrect total age calculations.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Simplification, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 2�rh = 565.2, Volume = �r²h = 1,695.6. Using � = 3.14, solve for r and h. From CSA: 2 * 3.14 * r * h = 565.2 � r * h = 565.2 / 6.28 � 90. From Volume: 3.14 * r² * h = 1,695.6. Substitute h = 90/r into Volume equation: 3.14 * r² * (90/r) = 1,695.6 � 3.14 * 90r = 1,695.6 � r = 1,695.6 / (3.14 * 90) � 6. Total Surface Area = 2�r(r + h) = 2 * 3.14 * 6 * (6 + 15) = 2 * 3.14 * 6 * 21 � 791.28 m². Option B is correct as it accurately calculates total surface area using derived radius and height. Other options incorrectly compute surface area formulas.

Key point: simplifying algebraic expressions. The question likely involves combining like terms or applying distributive property. Option C (2a) is correct because it's the simplified form after combining coefficients and variables properly. Options A and B incorrectly square the variable or coefficient, while D uses the wrong variable.

The problem involves setting up proportions and solving for x, then using ratios to find y. First, set up the proportion (10+x)/(14+x) = (38+x)/(28+x), solve for x, then use 3x/y = y/(5x-6) to find y. Correct calculation yields y=72. Other options don't satisfy the proportion and ratio conditions.

Initial savings are 20% of 43,800 = 8,760. After income increases by 36%, new income is 43,800*1.36 = 59,568. Expenditure increases by 40% from initial expenditure (43,800 - 8,760 = 35,040) to 35,040*1.4 = 49,056. New savings = 59,568 - 49,056 = 10,512, which is an increase of 10,512 - 8,760 = 1,752. Option D is correct.

Third proportional C means 59:B = B:C. B is the sum of first three even natural numbers: 2 + 4 + 6 = 12. So, 59/12 = 12/C, solving gives C = (12*12)/59 � 2.44. Option B is correct. Other options result from incorrect calculations of B or C.

Total score = (22*85) + (75-22)*95 = 1,870 + 5,335 = 7,205. Average = 7,205 / 75 � 92.1. Option C is correct. Other options miscalculate total score or average.

Let T's age be x. S's age is x + 5. R's age is 2(x + 5) and also 3x. Equate: 2(x + 5) = 3x � 2x + 10 = 3x � x = 10. R's age is 30, difference with T is 30 - 10 = 20. Option B is correct.

Key point: the inverse proportionality between the number of workers and time taken. Let X be the original number of workers. The total work can be represented as X * 36. When 3 workers are absent, (X-3) workers complete the work in 39 days: (X-3)*39 = X*36. Solving: 39X - 117 = 36X � 3X = 117 � X = 39. Option D fits as it satisfies the equation. Other options don't solve the equation correctly.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Mensuration, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Prime numbers have exactly two distinct factors: 1 and themselves. 51 = 3 * 17 (not prime), 79 is prime, 31 is prime, 67 is prime. Option A is not a prime number, making it the correct answer.

Angle of depression = 45°, so the horizontal distance equals the height of the building (tan45° = 1). Distance = 15 m. Option A is correct. Other options incorrectly apply trigonometric ratios.

Net filling rate = 1/11 - 1/22 = 1/22 per minute. To fill half the tank: time = (1/2)/(1/22) = 11 minutes. Option A is correct. Other options miscalculate the net rate or time required.

Amount after 2 years = 4400*(1 + 20/100)^2 = 4400*(1.2)^2 = 4400*1.44 = 6336. Option D matches the calculation. Other options apply incorrect interest formulas or calculations.

Key point: successive percentage discounts. First, calculate the price after a 5% discount: 21,000 * (1 - 5/100) = 21,000 * 0.95 = 19,950. Let the second discount be Z%. The final price is 19,950 * (1 - Z/100) = 11,172. Solving for Z: (19,950 - 11,172)/19,950 * 100 = 8,778/19,950 * 100 � 44%. Option D is correct because 44% gives the exact final price. Other options do not satisfy the equation.

Prime numbers between 309 and 320 are 311, 313, 317, and 319. However, 319 = 11*29, so it's not prime. So, only 311, 313, and 317 are primes, totaling 3. Option B is correct. Option A overcounts, and options C and D undercount.

Original number: 2 5 8 6 7 1 5 4 3. Apply the rule: even digits +1, odd digits -1. New digits: 3, 4, 9, 7, 6, 0, 4, 3, 2. The new number is 349760432. The middle digit (5th) is 6. Option B is correct. Other options misapply the transformation.

Highest number among 515, 758, 761, 726, 579 is 761. Lowest is 515. Second digit of 761 is 6, and of 515 is 1. Sum: 6 + 1 = 7. Option D is correct. Other options miscalculate the highest/lowest or their digits.

The pattern involves rotating the letters. DIVE -> DEVI (shift right), DEVI -> EVID (shift right). Similarly, BEAR -> BRAE (shift right), BRAE -> RAEB (shift right). Option D follows: COLD -> CDLO (shift right), CDLO -> DLOC (shift right). Other options do not maintain the rotation logic.

Each term increases by 3 letters in each position: B+3=E, M+3=P, V+3=Y (not listed). Next term after KSP: K+3=N, S+3=V, P+3=S. However, the pattern seems to adjust; observing the options, NUN fits a modified shift (K�N, S�U, P�N). Option B is correct. Other options do not follow the incremental pattern.

Key point: identifying odd numbers with specific preceding and succeeding conditions. We scan the series from left to right: 6 6 4 5 2 2 4 5 1 4 7 7 4 5 9 6 9 2 4 3 8 1 2 8 3 7 1. The odd numbers are 5,5,1,7,7,5,9,9,3,7,1. Checking each: 5 (preceded by 4-even, followed by 2-even: no), 5 (preceded by 2-even, followed by 1-odd: no), 1 (preceded by 5-odd, followed by 4-even: yes), 7 (preceded by 4-even, followed by 7-odd: no), 7 (preceded by 7-odd, followed by 4-even: yes), 5 (preceded by 4-even, followed by 9-odd: no), 9 (preceded by 5-odd, followed by 6-even: yes), 9 (preceded by 6-even, followed by 2-even: no), 3 (preceded by 4-even, followed by 8-even: no), 7 (preceded by 3-odd, followed by 1-odd: no), 1 (preceded by 8-even, followed by 2-even: no). Only three instances (1,7,9) meet the criteria. The other choices B (5) and D (4) overcount by including numbers not meeting both conditions.

Key point: decoding blood relations using symbols. Given: V % L & C + B % D. Break down each symbol: % = sister, & = wife, + = father. Starting from the end: B % D means B is the sister of D. C + B means C is the father of B. L & C means L is the wife of C. V % L means V is the sister of L. Combining: L is the wife of C (father of B and D's sister). So V is the sister of L, making V the sister of C's wife, hence V is the sister-in-law of C, but since L is the wife, V is the sister of L, which makes V the sister of C's wife. So, V is the sister of D's father's wife, making V the mother's sister (aunt) of D. The correct option A (Mother's sister) fits. The other choices B and D incorrectly assume brother relationships, while C assumes a mother relation which isn't directly established.

Key point: identifying the code for 'blue'. From the given: 'royal snow blue' is coded as 'tl zw cr' and 'blue two web' is coded as 'org iq zw'. Comparing both, 'blue' appears in both and corresponds to 'zw' in the codes. In the first statement, 'blue' is 'zw', and in the second, 'blue' is also 'zw'. This consistency confirms that 'blue' is coded as 'zw'. The other choices A, C, and D refer to codes for other words (royal, snow, two, web) which are not relevant to the question.

Key point: evaluating syllogistic arguments. Statements: Some samosas are burgers (S � B), Some burgers are pizzas (B � P). Conclusions: (I) Some samosas are pizzas (S � P): This is a possible but not necessary conclusion, as the overlap between S and P isn't guaranteed. (II) All pizzas are burgers (P � B): This is incorrect because 'some' does not imply 'all'. Neither conclusion logically follows from the given statements. The other choices A, B, and C incorrectly assume overlaps or inclusions that aren't supported by the premises.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Letter Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Key point: determining the seating order around a circular table. Given: E is second to the left of B, C is second to the right of F, D is immediate left of C. Let's arrange: Start with F, since C is second to the right of F: F _ C. D is immediate left of C: F D C. Now, E is second to the left of B. Since it's a circular table, we need to place B and E relative to the existing positions. If we place B somewhere, E must be two seats to the left. Let's tentatively place B after C (but this is circular, so positions wrap around). If F D C, then placing B after C would require E to be two seats left of B, which would be at F's position, but F is already occupied. Alternatively, place B such that E is two seats left. Let's fix F D C. Let's assume the order is F D C ... (since it's circular). Let's place B somewhere else. If we go clockwise: F D C _ _ _ ... E must be second to the left of B. Let's say B is at position 5, then E would be at position 3 (which is C's position, conflicting). Alternatively, place B at position 6: then E is at position 4. So the order could be F D C A E B (but need to check all conditions). However, the exact arrangement requires ensuring all conditions are met without overlap. Key point: that A's position isn't directly given, so we deduce from the options. The task is to identify who is immediate right of A. If the correct answer is A (B), then B must be next to A. Given the complexity, the explanation might be simplified: E is second left of B � B and E are separated by one person. C is second right of F � F and C are separated by one person (F _ C). D is immediate left of C � F D C. Now, arranging around the table: Let's fix F D C. Then, B must be placed such that E is two seats left. If we place B with one seat between E and B, and considering the circular nature, the arrangement could be E _ B. Integrating with F D C, we might have E A B, with E second to the left of B. Then, the full arrangement would be E A B F D C (circular). So, A is between E and B, making B the immediate right of A. The other choices B, C, D incorrectly assume positions based on incomplete analysis.

The statements 'Some erasers are pens' and 'Some pens are bags' do not establish a direct link between erasers and bags. Conclusion (I) assumes a connection that isn't necessarily true, as the overlap between pens and bags could be separate from the erasers-pens overlap. Conclusion (II) incorrectly generalizes 'all bags are pens' from 'some pens are bags', which is a common logical fallacy. So, neither conclusion follows.

Visualizing Satish's path: South 47 km, right (west) 65 km, right (north) 65 km, right (east) 77 km, right (south) 18 km. Net movement: South (47-65+18) = 0 km, West (65-77) = -12 km (i.e., 12 km west). The shortest distance back is 12 km east, but since he needs to go west to reach A, the answer reflects the net westward displacement required to return.

The pattern alternates between adding 16 and 17: 12 +16=28, 28+17=45, 45+16=61 (not 63, but assuming a typo), 61+17=78 (closest to 63? Maybe the series is 12, 28 (+16), 45 (+17), 63 (+18), so next could be 63+19=82. This matches option A, indicating the correct answer follows this incremental pattern.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Alphabet Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

From the given conditions: D and L have three people between them, with B to D's immediate right. K and I have three people between them. J is next to both L and I, which places J between L and I. Arranging these, the order around the table would be D, B, ..., L, J, I, ..., K. C's position isn't directly stated, but using the process of elimination and the fixed positions of others, J ends up second to the left of C based on the arrangement deduced from the clues.

From the conditions: M and O have two boxes between them, and O is at the top (no box below O), so O is first, M is fourth. N is above S, and R is below P but above Q. The only arrangement that fits is O, N, P, M, R, Q, S (from top to bottom). Q is at the sixth position, so third above Q would be third from Q upwards: Q (6), R (5), P (4), so P is third above Q.

Key point: identifying a consistent mathematical relationship between the numbers in each set. For the given sets (12, 20, 45) and (18, 26, 57), observe the pattern: 12 + 8 = 20, 20 + 25 = 45; 18 + 8 = 26, 26 + 31 = 57. The increments (8, 25) and (8, 31) suggest adding 8 to the first number and then adding a growing value (25, 31) to the second. Applying this to the options, only option A (13, 21, 47) fits: 13 + 8 = 21, 21 + 26 = 47. Other options do not maintain this incremental pattern. For example, option B (11, 20, 45) breaks the second step (20 + 25 = 45), which matches the first set but does not follow the unique increment of the second step seen in the given examples.

The relationship between CEID and JLPK is determined by shifting each letter by a fixed number of positions in the alphabet. C (3) to J (10) is +7, E (5) to L (12) is +7, I (9) to P (16) is +7, and D (4) to K (11) is +7. Applying the same logic to EGKF: E (5) +7 = L (12), G (7) +7 = N (14), K (11) +7 = R (18), F (6) +7 = M (13), resulting in LNRM. For GIMH, G (7) +7 = N (14), I (9) +7 = P (16), M (13) +7 = T (20), H (8) +7 = O (15), so the correct code is NPTO (option D). Other options do not follow the consistent +7 shift.

The series progresses by adding 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, which are perfect squares (1², 2², 3², 4², 5²). Starting from 1: 1 + 1 = 2, 2 + 4 = 6, 6 + 9 = 15, 15 + 16 = 31, 31 + 25 = 56. The next term should be 56 + 36 (6²) = 92. Option C (92) is correct. Other options do not fit the square number increment pattern.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Operations, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Alphabet Coding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

From the given codes: 'odirt is there' � 'omp rc gp' and 'oclean the dirt' � 'ohk mp bo'. Analyze the substitution: 'odirt' appears in both and is coded as 'omp' and 'mp' respectively. However, 'odirt' in the first statement is part of 'odirt is there', which is coded as 'omp rc gp'. The word 'dirt' is common and might be coded as 'gp' or 'mp'. In the second statement, 'oclean the dirt' is 'ohk mp bo', where 'dirt' is 'bo'. This inconsistency suggests that 'dirt' might be coded based on its position or other rules. The task is to identify the code of 'odirt'. If 'odirt' in the first example is 'omp', but considering 'dirt' as 'gp', the code for 'odirt' could be a combination. However, the correct answer is 'mp' (option C), indicating that 'odirt' is directly coded as 'mp' based on the second example where 'dirt' is part of 'oclean the dirt' � 'ohk mp bo', suggesting 'dirt' corresponds to 'mp' in that context. Key point: to find the consistent substitution for 'dirt' across examples.

Start by placing B and analyzing the given conditions. A is immediately left of B. C is third to the left of B, so positions are C _ _ B. F is immediately right of C, so C F _ B. D is an immediate neighbor of B and left of E, so D must be to the right of B (since left of B is occupied by A). So, arrangement is C F A B D E. The extreme right end is E, so option B is correct. The other choices like D or F are not at the extreme right based on the deduced order.

Analyze the series to find even digits (2,4,6,8) that are both preceded and followed by even digits. The series is 2 6 9 1 2 5 7 2 5 2 2 4 7 9 3 2 5 4 1 4 9 9 1 8 9. Checking each even digit: 6 is preceded by 2 (even) but followed by 9 (odd). The next valid case is the '2' at position 11, which is preceded by 2 (even) and followed by 4 (even). No other instances meet the criteria. So, only one such digit exists, so option A is correct.

Examine the series 1 2 8 4 6 9 5 8 8 7 9 2 6 6 5 8 6 3 1 1 4 4 6 for even numbers with even neighbors. Checking each even digit: 8 (preceded by 2, followed by 4), 4 (preceded by 8, followed by 6), 6 (preceded by 4, followed by 9 - invalid), 8 (preceded by 5 - invalid), 8 (preceded by 8, followed by 7 - invalid), 2 (preceded by 9 - invalid), 6 (preceded by 2, followed by 6), 6 (preceded by 6, followed by 5 - invalid), 8 (preceded by 5 - invalid), 6 (preceded by 8, followed by 3 - invalid), 4 (preceded by 1 - invalid), 4 (preceded by 4, followed by 6). Valid cases are 8, 4, 6, and 4, totaling four, so option A is correct.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Symbol Substitution, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Analyze the letter-clusters: QA-KG, UE-PK, BL-WR, HR-CX. Look for patterns in the positions of letters in the alphabet. QA: Q(17) to A(1), difference of -16. KG: K(11) to G(7), difference of -4. UE: U(21) to E(5), difference of -16. PK: P(16) to K(11), difference of -5. BL: B(2) to L(12), difference of +10. WR: W(23) to R(18), difference of -5. HR: H(8) to R(18), difference of +10. CX: C(3) to X(24), difference of +21. The odd one out is QA-KG, as the differences in the other pairs have a consistent pattern (UE-PK: -16 and -5; BL-WR: +10 and -5; HR-CX: +10 and +21), whereas QA-KG has -16 and -4, which doesn't fit the established trend of combining a large negative difference with a smaller negative or positive difference. So, option A is correct.

Rakesh's rank from the top is 13th, and from the bottom is 18th. To find the total number of students, add the ranks and subtract 1 (since Rakesh is counted twice). Total students = 13 + 18 - 1 = 30. This calculation accounts for Rakesh's position being included in both counts. So, option D is correct.

To solve this, visualize the path on a grid. Starting at A, moving 15 km north, then 18 km east, 23 km south, 26 km west, and finally 8 km north. Calculate net displacement: North-South: 15 -23 +8 = 0 km. East-West: 18 -26 = -8 km (8 km west). To return to A, he must go 8 km east. Option B is correct because it accounts for the net westward displacement requiring an eastward return. Options A and C incorrectly state distances or directions, while D reverses the direction.

Analyze the pattern: 18 to 22 (+4), 22 to 30 (+8), 30 to 42 (+12), 42 to 58 (+16). The differences increase by 4 each time. Next difference should be +20. 58 +20 =78. Option B is correct as it follows the incremental pattern. Other options don't fit the sequence logic.

This checks recent sports events. Suruchi Singh winning three gold medals in the 10m air pistol at the 2025 ISSF World Cup is the correct fact. Option C is accurate. Other options either understate or overstate her achievement, which is a common distractor in such questions.

The 'Great Green Wall' initiative by Andhra Pradesh aims to protect its coastline. This fact links to state environmental policies. Option B is correct as Andhra Pradesh's announcement is a notable event. Other states listed either haven't made such plans or are known for different projects, making them incorrect choices.

The BSF was established on December 1, 1965. In 2024, this marks the 60th year. Option B identifies the 60th foundation day. Other options miscalculate the anniversary, a common error in date-based questions.

China launched the first AI-based satellite in May 2025, highlighting its advancements in space technology. Option D is correct. Other countries listed haven't achieved this specific milestone, making them incorrect. This question assesses awareness of recent global tech developments.

The answer depends on the winner of the National Team of the Year award at the Sportstar Aces Awards 2025. B, Indian Chess Teams is the answer. This requires knowledge of recent sports awards in India. The Indian Chess Teams likely won due to significant achievements in international tournaments, which would be widely reported. The other choices like the Indian Women's Cricket Team or Men's Hockey Team might have had notable performances, but the key is identifying the specific 2025 award recipient. For revision, remember major sports awards and their winners from the year.

The inauguration of the Khelo India multipurpose hall in Arunachal Pradesh in 2025 emphasizes the commitment of the Union Government (Option A). The Khelo India scheme is a national program aimed at promoting sports, directly linked to the central government's initiatives. State Government (C) might be involved in implementation, but the question specifies whose commitment is highlighted, pointing to the overarching national policy. For revision, connect infrastructure projects under Khelo India to the Union Government's sports development agenda.

The Aparajita Bill 2024 faced objections from the Central Government (A) regarding overly harsh punishments under BNS. This involves understanding the legislative process and stakeholders. The Central Government's objection indicates an internal review or conflict between proposed laws and existing policies. The other choices like the Law Commission (B) or Supreme Court (D) might review laws but aren't the ones raising objections in this context. Students need to recognize the Central Government's role in bill scrutiny and amendments.

The French Open, or Roland Garros, is traditionally played on Clay Courts (C). This is a standard fact in tennis, with the tournament being one of the few still using clay. Grass (A) is associated with Wimbledon, and Hard Courts (D) with the US Open. For revision, remember the surface types of major tennis tournaments, as this is a common question in sports-related current affairs.

The 12-day cybersecurity exercise 'Cyber Suraksha' in June 2025 was initiated by the Indian Defence Cyber Agency (B). This requires knowledge of recent national cybersecurity efforts. The Defence Cyber Agency's role involves protecting critical infrastructure, making such exercises part of their mandate. The other choices like the Indian Air Force Cyber Agency (A) or ISRO (D) might conduct specific drills but aren't linked to this particular initiative. For revision, keep track of agencies responsible for national cybersecurity programs.

The question focuses on the decline in ULIPs' share in the total APE of ICICI Prudential Life Insurance (A) in Q1 FY26. This tests knowledge of recent insurance sector trends. ULIPs (Unit Linked Insurance Plans) are investment-linked policies, and their reduced share indicates a shift in the company's product mix or market strategy. For revision, recognize ICICI Prudential as a major player and understand that ULIP performance is a key indicator of an insurer's market positioning. Other options are other choices not highlighted in the specific context of this Q1 FY26 report.

Key point: identifying notable award recipients in the film industry. Shabana Azmi received the Lifetime Achievement Award at the Bengaluru International Film Festival, 2025, due to her significant contributions to Indian cinema. Option A is correct as she is a renowned actress and social activist. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because Manoj Bajpayee, Adoor Gopalakrishnan, and Anupam Kher, while accomplished, were not the recipients of this specific award in 2025.

Option C is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Government Initiatives, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

The theme of the International Day of Democracy, 2025, was 'Achieving Gender Equality, Action by Action' (Option C). This theme emphasizes the role of democratic processes in promoting gender equality. Option C is correct as it directly addresses the 2025 theme. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they either relate to previous years' themes or do not specifically focus on gender equality in the context of democracy.

The Election Commission of India Network (ECINET) streamlined electoral processes, including the publication of Index Cards. With ECINET, these cards were made available within 72 hours of election results (Option B), enhancing transparency and efficiency. Option B is correct as it reflects the improved timelines due to digital integration. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because handwritten cards (A) and delays (D) are outdated practices, and discontinuation (C) did not occur.

UNFCCC stands for United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (Option D). This is an international environmental treaty adopted in 1992 to address climate change. Option D is correct as it accurately represents the full form. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they either misrepresent the organization's name or its purpose, which is specifically focused on climate change mitigation.

The VLSRSAM flight-test was conducted by DRDO at the Integrated Test Range, Odisha (Option D). This range is a key facility for testing missile systems, ensuring they meet operational requirements. Option D is correct due to the specific mention of the Integrated Test Range in Odisha. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they refer to other test locations that were not used for this particular VLSRSAM test.

The Bal Sahitya Puraskar is an award given to recognize outstanding contributions in children's literature. The prize money for this award is a key detail often highlighted in current affairs. The correct option, D (�50,000), aligns with the established prize amount for such literary honors. Options A (�75,000) and B (�1,00,000) might be confused with other national awards, while C (�25,000) underestimates the typical prize money for significant literary recognitions in India.

Option A is marked correct. For this Polity question on Legislation and Governance, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

CPI (Consumer Price Index) inflation measures the average change in prices of goods and services. A near six-year low indicates a significant economic trend. The correct answer, C (3.16%), represents the actual reported inflation rate for April 2025. Options A (4.2%) and D (6.2%) might reflect typical inflation targets or higher rates, while B (5.26%) could be a distractor from other economic indicators or time periods, emphasizing the need to recall specific data points for such questions.

Option C is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Environmental Issues, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.