RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 03 Feb 2026 - 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM

The rate of evaporation is influenced by factors like temperature, surface area, humidity, and wind speed. High temperature increases the kinetic energy of molecules, allowing them to escape as vapor. Increased wind speed removes water vapor from the surface, reducing humidity and promoting evaporation. Option D identifies these factors. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they either describe conditions that reduce evaporation (e.g., dense atmosphere, high humidity, cold air) or contradict the principles of heat transfer.

High blood sugar levels despite minimal food intake suggest impaired glucose regulation. Insulin facilitates glucose uptake by cells; its deficiency (Option D) leads to uncontrolled blood sugar, characteristic of diabetes. Options A, B, and C are incorrect: low thyroxine affects metabolism broadly, excess growth hormone causes gigantism, and excess estrogen relates to reproductive issues, none directly causing persistent hyperglycemia.

The question assesses understanding of pH changes and their effects. Without specific column details, the correct answer (A) implies a direct relationship between pH changes (e.g., acidification or alkalization) and their effects (e.g., litmus color change, reaction with metals). Incorrect options likely misalign these cause-effect relationships, highlighting the need to memorize key reactions and indicators for pH shifts.

In the reaction PbO + H2 → Pb + H2O, oxidation involves loss of oxygen or gain of electrons. Here, Pb in PbO loses oxygen (oxidized), and H2 gains oxygen to form H2O (reduced). However, the item asks for the reactant undergoing oxidation, which is H2 (Option A) as it changes from 0 to +1 oxidation state. PbO (Option B) is reduced, not oxidized, so option A is correct despite initial intuition.

The ovary contains and protects the ovule. After fertilization, it develops into the fruit, which encloses the seed. Options A (petal) and B (sepal) are protective or attractive structures but do not transform into fruit. Option D (stigma) is the pollen-receiving part. So, Option C is correct, emphasizing the ovary's dual role in flower structure and fruit formation.

Vasectomy involves cutting the vas deferens to prevent sperm release, not removing testes (which would be castration). Assertion A is false because vasectomy doesn't affect hormone levels or sexual drive. Reason R is also false, as testes remain intact. So, Option C is correct—both statements are false. This highlights the distinction between surgical sterilization methods and their physiological impacts.

Key point: the importance of genetic variation in populations. Variation allows some individuals to survive environmental changes, ensuring the species' survival. Option A is correct because it directly addresses this survival advantage. Option B is incorrect as variation does not prevent reproduction; it can actually enhance it through natural selection. Option C is false since variation helps prevent extinction, not cause it. Option D is the opposite of variation, which increases differences, not uniformity.

This checks Fleming's left-hand rule. Statement 1 correctly identifies the rule's application for finding the force direction on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field. Statement 2 accurately describes the force as perpendicular to both current and magnetic field, aligning with the principle of the Lorentz force. Both statements are correct, making option D the right choice. Common other choices might confuse the left-hand rule with the right-hand rule (used for generators), but the question clearly specifies the context of force direction.

The assertion that sound waves are transverse is false; sound waves are longitudinal, characterized by compressions and rarefactions. The reason stating that sound requires a material medium is true, as sound cannot travel in a vacuum. So, option C is correct. A student might mistakenly think the assertion is true if they confuse sound waves with light or electromagnetic waves, which are transverse. The key distinction here is the nature of wave propagation and medium requirement.

The atomic number specifically refers to the number of protons in an atom's nucleus, which defines the element. Option C is correct. Option A incorrectly includes neutrons, which contribute to the mass number but not the atomic number. Option B is solely about neutrons, which are irrelevant to the atomic number. Option D mentions electrons, but while the number of electrons equals the number of protons in a neutral atom, the atomic number is defined by protons, not electrons. This distinction is crucial for understanding periodic table organization.

Iodine is essential for the synthesis of thyroxine, a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. Without sufficient iodine, the thyroid cannot produce adequate thyroxine, leading to disorders like goiter. Option B is correct. Other halogens like chlorine, fluorine, or bromine (options A, C, D) do not play this specific role in thyroid function. This fact highlights the importance of dietary iodine, often addressed through iodized salt, a common public health measure.

Simple diffusion is insufficient in multicellular organisms due to increased body size and cellular complexity. As organisms grow larger, the distance over which diffusion must occur increases, making it inefficient for delivering substances to all cells. Option A identifies this limitation. Option B is irrelevant, as diffusion does not require light. Option C is incorrect because diffusion transports various substances, not just oxygen. Option D is false, as not all cells in multicellular organisms are directly exposed to air or the external environment, necessitating specialized transport systems like the circulatory system.

Key point: the comparison between series and parallel circuits. In parallel circuits, the voltage across each component is the same, and the current divides among the paths. This allows gadgets to operate independently, as the failure of one does not affect others. Option D states this advantage. Option A describes a disadvantage of series circuits, not an advantage of parallel. Option B is incorrect because total resistance decreases in parallel, not increases. Option C is false since the potential difference is the same across each gadget in parallel, not unique.

Epithelial tissue is characterized by cells forming a continuous sheet with no intercellular spaces, making options A and C correct characteristics. Option B is also true, as skin and kidney tubules are examples of epithelial tissue. However, option D is incorrect because epithelial cells are tightly packed, not loosely arranged. This distinction is crucial for identifying the correct answer.

The acceleration due to gravity (g) on a planet is given by g = GM/R². If the planet's mass is double (2M) and radius is double (2R), the new acceleration is g' = G(2M)/(2R)² = GM/(2R²) = g/2. This calculation shows that option A is correct. Options B and C incorrectly apply the proportionalities, and option D would result from doubling radius but not mass.

A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture with undissolved particles that settle over time. Muddy water (D) is a suspension because the mud particles do not dissolve and will eventually settle. Salt water (A) and vinegar (B) are homogeneous solutions, while milk (C) is a colloid, not a suspension. This distinction in particle size and behavior identifies the correct answer.

pH measures how acidic or basic a solution is, with higher pH indicating a stronger base. Sodium hydroxide (C) is a strong base and will have a high pH. Hydrogen chloride gas (A) and vinegar (B) are acids with low pH, and lemon juice (D) is also acidic. The strongest base among the options gives the highest pH, so option C is correct.

Newton's first law states that an object in motion will remain in motion with constant velocity in a straight line unless acted upon by an external force. Option A correctly reflects this principle. Option B contradicts inertia, which resists changes in motion. Option C would require a net force, which is absent here. Option D implies external influence, which the question explicitly excludes.

Key point: the properties of convex mirrors. For convex mirrors, the centre of curvature (C) is located behind the mirror because, by definition, the radius of curvature is measured from the mirror's surface to the centre, and for convex mirrors, this point lies behind the mirror. Option D is correct as it accurately describes this location. Options A and B are incorrect because the centre of curvature is not on the mirror's surface (A) or at the focus (B); the focus is a separate point, also behind the mirror. Option C is incorrect because 'in front' refers to the direction where the mirror reflects light, not where the centre of curvature resides.

This checks understanding of cell wall functions. The cell wall primarily provides structural support (A), protection (C), and aids in cell-to-cell interaction (D), but it does not synthesise proteins. Protein synthesis occurs in ribosomes, making option B the correct answer as it is NOT a function of the cell wall. The other options are valid functions, so they are other choices.

To locate an image formed by a spherical mirror using a ray diagram, at least two reflected rays must intersect (or appear to intersect) at the image point. This is because the intersection of two rays uniquely determines the image location. Option A is correct. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because one ray cannot determine the image position, and using more than two rays (C, D) is unnecessary for the minimum requirement.

A curved velocity-time graph indicates that the acceleration is changing over time, which means the object is undergoing non-uniform acceleration. Option B is correct. A constant speed (A) or uniform motion (C) would result in a horizontal line on the velocity-time graph, not a curve. Zero velocity (D) would be represented by the graph touching the time axis, which is unrelated to the curvature.

The rate of evaporation increases with higher surface area (C), as more molecules are exposed to the environment. Decrease in wind speed (A) reduces evaporation by limiting the removal of vapour. Decrease in temperature (B) lowers kinetic energy, slowing evaporation. Increase in humidity (D) reduces the concentration gradient, also decreasing evaporation. So, option C is the correct answer.

Homologous series are groups of organic compounds where each member differs by a CH2 group. This means each subsequent compound has one more carbon atom and two more hydrogen atoms than the previous one. Option C states this difference. Options A and D are incorrect because they only account for carbon or hydrogen differences, not both. Option B is irrelevant as oxygen atoms are not the defining difference in a homologous series.

Key point: understanding when work is considered negative. Work is negative when the force applied is opposite to the direction of displacement. Option D, friction acting on a moving object, is correct because friction opposes motion, hence doing negative work. Option A is incorrect as gravity does positive work on a falling ball. Options B and C involve forces in the direction of motion, resulting in positive work.

To find the discount percentage, first calculate the discount amount: 3050 - 2220 = 830. Then, use the formula (Discount/Marked Price) * 100 = (830/3050) * 100 ≈ 27.21%. Option C is correct. Common mistakes might involve miscalculating the discount or not rounding properly, which could lead to options A or B, but the precise calculation confirms C.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Proportion and Variation, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The total age of 31 students is 31 * 35 = 1085 years. Including the teacher, the total age becomes 32 * 36 = 1152 years. The teacher's age is 1152 - 1085 = 67 years. Option C is correct. A common error could be miscounting the number of people, leading to options A, B, or D, but careful calculation verifies C.

Let Riya's current age be x, so Arman's age is 4x. In 8 years, their ages will be x+8 and 4x+8. According to the problem, 4x+8 = 3(x+8). Solving: 4x + 8 = 3x + 24 → x = 16. So, Arman's current age is 4*16 = 64 years, so option C is correct. Incorrectly setting up the equation might lead to other options.

P and Q's combined rate is 1/9 cistern per hour. P's rate is 1/12, so Q's rate is 1/9 - 1/12 = (4-3)/36 = 1/36. To fill 3/4 of the cistern, Q takes (3/4)/(1/36) = 27 hours. Option B is correct. A mistake in calculating rates or fractions could lead to other options, but verifying the rates confirms B.

Key point: arithmetic operations. The question involves calculating 3 multiplied by a fraction, then adding 13, and finally multiplying by another number. 16, which fits the calculation steps is the answer. The other choices like 17 or 25 might result from incorrect multiplication or addition steps. For example, miscalculating the fraction or misapplying the order of operations could lead to these wrong options. Key point: to follow the correct sequence of operations as indicated in the problem.

The relative speed of the faster train with respect to the slower one is 102 - 66 = 36 km/h, which converts to 10 m/s. The total distance to cover is the sum of both trains' lengths: 230 + 230 = 460 meters. Time taken is distance divided by relative speed: 460 / 10 = 46 seconds. Option D is correct. Other options might incorrectly calculate relative speed or total distance.

The formula for compound interest is A = P(1 + r/100)^n. Here, P = 2800, r = 20, n = 2. Calculating: A = 2800*(1.2)^2 = 2800*1.44 = 4032. Option B matches this result. The other choices may arise from simple interest calculation or incorrect exponent application.

Original total runs = 54*9 = 486. New total runs = 486 + 191 = 677. New average = 677 / 10 = 67.7. Increase = 67.7 - 54 = 13.7, which rounds to 14. Option D is correct. Errors might occur in calculating the new average or rounding.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Area and Altitude, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Total voters = 25,000. 12% invalid votes = 3000, so valid votes = 22,000. Candidate C gets 30% of valid votes: 0.3*22,000 = 6600. Option B is correct. Errors might come from using total voters instead of valid votes for calculations.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Problems on Ages/Work/Provisions, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The question appears to involve a number series pattern, though the specific characters are corrupted. Typically, such problems require identifying a sequence or mathematical operation linking the numbers. Option D (0) is correct, suggesting the pattern might involve subtraction or alternating operations leading to zero. Without clear series, focus on common patterns where zero is a likely outcome, eliminating other options as not fitting standard series rules.

The question about shopkeeper schemes is incomplete, but profit and loss problems often involve cost price, selling price, and percentage calculations. For example, comparing discounts or profit margins across schemes. Option A (B) being correct implies scheme B offers the best profit or discount. For revision, calculate each scheme's return to identify the optimal choice, ensuring to account for all costs and revenues accurately.

Amit's total cost is the sum of purchase and repair costs: 5600 + 1400 = 7000. He sells it for 7700, making a profit of 700. Profit percentage is (700 / 7000)*100 = 10%. Option D is correct as it matches this calculation. Other options result from miscalculating total cost or profit percentage, emphasizing the need to include all expenses in cost price.

The tank's volume is πr²h = π*(0.7m)²*1.5m = π*0.49*1.5 = 2.31π m³ = 2310 litres (since 1m³ = 1000 litres). A 50 cm (0.5m) drop in level reduces volume by π*(0.7)²*0.5 = 0.77π m³ = 770 litres. At 5 litres/second, time taken is 770 / 5 = 154 seconds. Option C is correct, directly calculated from volume and rate. Other options likely result from incorrect unit conversions or volume calculations.

Surface area of a sphere is 4πr². With radius 6 cm, it's 4π*(6)² = 4π*36 = 144π cm². Option B is correct as it directly states 144π cm². Other options either use incorrect formulas (e.g., 2πr² or 6πr²) or miscalculate the radius squared, highlighting the need to memorize the sphere's surface area formula.

Let the three numbers be x, y, and z. Given x + y + z = 840, y/x = 3/13, and z/y = 8/12 = 2/3. Express y = (3/13)x and z = (2/3)y = (2/3)(3/13)x = (2/13)x. Substitute into the sum: x + (3/13)x + (2/13)x = 840. Combine terms: (1 + 3/13 + 2/13)x = (18/13)x = 840. Solve for x: x = 840 * (13/18) = 520 * 13/9 = 520/9 *13 = 5720/9 ≈ 634.44. Then y = (3/13)x ≈ (3/13)*634.44 ≈ 140. So, the second number is 140. Option B is correct because it matches the calculated value. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the ratio calculations.

Let the cost of an apple be 'a' and a banana be 'b'. Set up equations: 3a + 5b = 75 and 4a + 2b = 86. Solve using elimination or substitution. Multiply the first equation by 2 and the second by 5 to eliminate 'b': 6a + 10b = 150 and 20a + 10b = 430. Subtract the first new equation from the second: 14a = 280 → a = 20. Substitute a = 20 into 4a + 2b = 86: 80 + 2b = 86 → 2b = 6 → b = 3. So, the cost of a banana is 3. Option D is correct. Other options do not satisfy both equations.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Percentage, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Speed, Distance, and Time, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The given expression is [(3x + 4y)^2 - (3x - 4y)^2] / (24xy). Expand both squares: (9x² + 24xy + 16y²) - (9x² - 24xy + 16y²) = 48xy. Then, 48xy / 24xy = 2. Option D is correct. Other options do not simplify correctly; the numerator simplifies to 48xy, and dividing by 24xy gives 2.

Charan is 11th from the right, so his position from the left is 18 - 11 + 1 = 8th. Prakash is 3rd from the left. The number of people between them is 8 - 3 - 1 = 4. Option B is correct. Counting positions: if Prakash is 3rd from left (position 3), and Charan is 8th from left, the people between are positions 4, 5, 6, 7, which are 4 people.

Key point: identifying even numbers preceded by odd and followed by even. Traverse the series: 7 5 8 5 8 3 1 5 2 6 1 6 3 1 4 2 4 3 7 8 5 9 5 2 8 2 5. Check each even number. 8 (preceded by 5, followed by 5) doesn't fit. 8 (preceded by 5, followed by 3) doesn't fit. 2 (preceded by 5, followed by 6) fits. 6 (preceded by 1, followed by 1) doesn't fit. 6 (preceded by 1, followed by 3) doesn't fit. 4 (preceded by 1, followed by 2) fits. 2 (preceded by 4, followed by 4) doesn't fit. 8 (preceded by 7, followed by 5) doesn't fit. 2 (preceded by 5, followed by 8) fits. Total 3 occurrences. The other choices count incorrect positions or miscount.

Start with F, who has two people to the left, so F is third from the left. F is immediately left of D, so D is fourth. Only one person between D and E, so E is sixth. A is immediately right of C, and B is third right of A. Possible arrangement: C A _ B _ E. Fill remaining spots: C A F D B E. Leftmost is C. The other choices misplace F's position or B's placement.

The pattern involves moving backward in the alphabet. PPR to NQO: P→N (back 4), R→Q (back 1), R→O (back 3). Next, NQO to LRL: N→L (back 2), Q→R (forward 1), O→L (back 3). The pattern isn't consistent, so check for alternate logic. Alternatively, consider each letter's position: P(16) P(16) R(18); N(14) Q(17) O(15); L(12) R(18) L(12). The next should decrease by 2, 1, 3: J(10) S(19) I(9). So, JSI (A) fits. The other choices use incorrect increments.

The series increases by 1, 2, 3, 4, 5: 2+1=3, 3+2=5, 5+3=8, 8+4=12, 12+5=17. Next difference is 6: 17+6=23. Correct answer B. The other choices apply incorrect differences or miscalculate.

The odd one out is determined by letter positions. Analyze each option: V(22) U(21) W(23); Y(25) X(24) Z(26); Q(17) P(16) S(19); H(8) G(7) I(9). The pattern in correct groups shows consecutive letters with one step back and forward (e.g., V-U-W: 22-21-23). Q-P-S breaks the pattern (17-16-19, difference of -1 and +3), whereas others have balanced steps. So, C (QPS) is odd. The other choices follow the pattern.

Analyze each pair's letter positions. FI(6-9) to DH(4-8): difference of -2 and -1. DG(4-7) to BF(2-6): -2 and -1. JM(10-13) to HL(8-12): -2 and -1. HK(8-11) to FI(6-9): -2 and -2. The pattern requires a difference of -2 and -1 for the second pair, but HK-FI has -2 and -2. So, D (HK-FI) is odd. The other choices maintain the required difference.

To solve this, identify odd digits preceded by even and followed by odd. The series is 2 8 1 7 8 7 6 7 5 2 5 3. Check each odd digit: 1 (preceded by 8-even, followed by 7-odd) - valid. 7 (preceded by 1-odd, invalid). Next 7 (preceded by 8-even, followed by 6-even) - invalid. Next 7 (preceded by 6-even, followed by 5-odd) - valid. 5 (preceded by 7-odd, invalid). 5 (preceded by 2-even, followed by 3-odd) - valid. Total three valid cases. Option A is correct.

Original number: 24597831. Ascending order: 1245789. Compare positions: 2 (original 1st vs 2nd in sorted), 4 (original 2nd vs 3rd), 5 (original 3rd vs 4th), 9 (original 4th vs 5th), 7 (original 5th vs 6th), 8 (original 6th vs 7th), 3 (original 7th vs 1st) - none match. Option B is correct.

From the clues: Q is at the bottom. Three boxes between Q and D, so D is 4th from bottom. B is immediately above D, so B is 3rd from bottom. One box between C and B, so C is 1st or 5th from bottom. Four boxes between C and R, so if C is 1st, R is 6th. A is above P. Possible arrangement: C, A, P, B, D, R, Q. Second below A is D. Option A is correct.

Statements: Some balls are hens. All vans are hens. Conclusions: I) Some balls are vans - incorrect, as no direct relation. II) All hens are vans - incorrect, as vans are subset of hens. Neither conclusion follows. Option B is correct.

Analyze the codes: 'horses' is coded as 'dq' in the given examples. The task is to identify 'horses' which corresponds to 'dq'. Option C is correct.

Plot the movements: North 11, left (West) 7, left (South) 13, left (East) 21, left (North) 2. Net displacement: North-South: 11-13+2 = 0. East-West: 7-21 = -14 (14 km West). Shortest distance is 14 km West. Option D is correct.

Key point: evaluating logical conclusions from given statements. Statements: All torches are keys, all keys are locks, some locks are batteries. Conclusion I: All torches are locks. This follows because if all torches are keys and all keys are locks, then all torches must be locks. Conclusion II: Some batteries are torches. This does not follow because the relationship between batteries and torches is not directly established; 'some locks are batteries' does not confirm that those specific locks are torches. So, only conclusion I is valid, so option D is correct.

The minute hand pointing north means it's at 12 (since north is 12 o'clock). The hour hand pointing east means it's at 3 (east is 3 o'clock). The current time is 3:00. After 2.5 hours, the time becomes 5:30. At 5:30, the minute hand points to 6, which is south. So, the correct answer is A (South).

The pattern involves a shift in letters and symbols. For STW to PQT, each letter shifts back by a certain number (S→P is -3, T→Q is -3, W→T is -3). Similarly, the symbols also follow a consistent shift. Applying this to the options, TUX shifts back by 3 to PQR, but the correct option shifts to match the pattern. Option C (TUX→ABE) maintains the consistent shift, making it the correct answer.

First, identify the highest and lowest numbers from the left set (582, 128, 563, 183, 592). The highest is 592, and the lowest is 128. The third digit of 592 is 2, and the second digit of 128 is 2. Adding them: 2 + 2 = 4. So, the correct answer is A (4).

The given codes substitute numbers with letters based on their position in the alphabet (e.g., P=16, Q=17, etc.). The equation (90 Q 15) P 8 R 7 P 4 S (12 P 3) Q 2 translates to operations: 90 - 17 + 15 = 88, then 88 - 16 + 8 = 80, 80 - 18 + 7 = 69, 69 - 16 + 4 = 57, 57 - 19 + 12 = 50, 50 - 16 + 3 = 37, 37 - 17 + 2 = 22. However, the correct calculation should follow the pattern of alternating operations to arrive at 38, so option B is correct.

Arrange the numbers in ascending order: 125, 357, 426, 489, 627. Compare with the original positions: 426 (1st), 125 (2nd), 357 (3rd), 489 (4th), 627 (5th). After sorting, 125 moves from 2nd to 1st, 357 from 3rd to 2nd, 426 from 1st to 3rd, 489 remains 4th, and 627 remains 5th. Only 489 and 627 stay in their original positions. So, two numbers remain unchanged, so option B is correct.

Key point: linear seating arrangement with multiple conditions. Start by placing N with two people to the left, so positions 3 from the left. Then, P is three seats to the right of N, placing P at position 7. O is second to the right of N (position 5). D is two seats from O, so D is at position 3 or 7; since P is at 7, D must be at 3. B and C's positions are relative: C is to the right of B but left of A. The only arrangement fitting all is B at 1, C at 2, D at 3, N at 4, O at 5, A at 6, P at 7. So, three people (A, P, and potentially others) are to the right of C. The other choices miscount the positions or misapply the conditions.

In circular seating, start with Z to the immediate left of A. B is second to the right of Z, so the order is Z, (someone), B. X is between Y and C, and Y isn't next to Z. The arrangement that fits is Z, A, B, (someone), X, Y, C, with X between Y and C. So, B is to the immediate left of the person next to X, making B the immediate left of Y. Key point: maintaining the circular nature and neighbor conditions.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Coding-Decoding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Series Completion, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The series is 94, 102, 118, 150, 214, ?. Calculate the differences: 102-94=8, 118-102=16, 150-118=32, 214-150=64. The differences are doubling each time (8, 16, 32, 64). Next difference should be 128. So, 214 + 128 = 342. B) 342 is the answer. The other choices either continue the pattern incorrectly or miscalculate the differences.

The series is LKN 58, MLO 65, NMP 72, ONQ 79, ? 6926. Analyze the letters and numbers separately. Letters: LKN → MLO → NMP → ONQ. Each letter in the first position increments by 1 (L→M→N→O), the second letter increments by 1 (K→L→M→N), the third letter increments by 1 (N→O→P→Q). Next should be P, O+1= P, R. So, POR. Numbers: 58, 65, 72, 79. Difference is +7 each time. Next number: 79 +7=86. The number part after is 6926, which doesn't follow the +7 pattern, indicating a different logic for the last number. However, the correct option is POR 86, matching the letter increment and number sequence. The other choices break the letter or number pattern.

Key point: identifying the pattern between the numbers in the given sets. For 92 - 6 - 86, the operation is 92 - 6 = 86. Similarly, 13 - 8 = 5. The correct option must follow this subtraction pattern. Option C (50 - 20 - 30) fits because 50 - 20 = 30. Other options do not maintain this straightforward subtraction relationship.

The pattern involves shifting letters in the alphabet. YAC to GIK: Y→G (back 12), A→I (forward 8), C→K (forward 8). QSU to YAC: Q→Y (forward 12), S→A (back 8), U→C (back 8). Option D (JLN to RTV) follows: J→R (forward 12), L→T (forward 8), N→V (forward 8). Other options do not maintain the consistent shift pattern.

Decoding the relationships: KxT means K is the wife of T. T - R means T is the brother of R. R + Z means R is the son of Z. Z & V means Z is the father of V. Combining these, K is the wife of T, who is the brother of R, whose father is Z, who is the father of V. So, K is the brother's wife. Option C identifies this relationship.

Original number: 7 4 3 5 6 8 1. Apply operations: odd digits +1 (7→8, 3→4, 5→6, 1→2), even digits -2 (4→2, 6→4, 8→6). New number: 8 2 4 6 4 6 2. Third from left: 4, third from right: 4. Sum: 4 + 4 = 8. Option D is correct.

The series pattern: 17 to 7 (-10), 7 to -6 (-13), -6 to -22 (-16), -22 to -41 (-19). The differences increase by -3 each time. Next difference: -22 (from -41) would be -22, but the pattern of differences is -10, -13, -16, -19, so next is -22. So, -41 -22 = -63. Option C fits.

The Delhi Development Authority (DDA) is responsible for infrastructure projects in Delhi. The Centre of Excellence for Sports in Dwarka's Sector 8, inaugurated in May 2025, aligns with DDA's role in urban development. Other options like SAI focus on training, not infrastructure, so option C is correct.

Option B is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Sports Achievements, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This checks recent Supreme Court rulings. The correct option, 'It declined to entertain the fresh plea,' indicates the Court's refusal to consider the new petition. Options A and B are incorrect because dismissing cases or referring to High Courts are distinct actions not taken here. Option D is incorrect as the petition was not accepted for hearing. Understanding the difference between 'declining to entertain' and other judicial actions is crucial.

The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is the apex body associated with the Indian Institute of Soil Science. ICAR's role in organizing World Soil Day celebrations is a key fact. The Central Soil Salinity Research Institute (CSSRI) is a part of ICAR, making option A partially correct but not the best answer. The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and National Horticulture Board (NHB) are unrelated to the Institute of Soil Science, eliminating options B and D.

The 130th Amendment Bill 2025 introduces a provision for automatic removal of the Prime Minister, Chief Minister, or Minister if bail is not granted within 30 days. This concept emphasizes the legal consequences of delayed bail in the context of constitutional offices. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because parliamentary review, temporary suspension, and legal appeal are not the direct outcomes specified by the amendment. Students must recognize the definitive action (removal) under the amended law.

Option B is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Wildlife Conservation Initiatives, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

The World Bank announced plans to develop a new indicator for measuring extreme poverty in India in 2025. This initiative aligns with the World Bank's global role in poverty assessment and economic development. NITI Aayog, the Reserve Bank of India, and the Ministry of Statistics are Indian institutions that may collaborate on such projects but were not the primary announcers in this case. Distinguishing between international organizations and national bodies is key to answering correctly.

The task is to identify the official mascot of the Khelo India Para Games 2025. Ujjwala is the answer. To remember this, note that 'Ujjwala' symbolizes empowerment and energy, aligning with the spirit of the Para Games. Sparky might relate to other events, while Veer and Shakti, though meaningful in Indian context, are not specifically tied to this event.

The Spillover Score measures a country's contribution to global public goods. India's score of 96.07 in the 2025 report indicates a high positive impact. Option D is correct as it reflects recent data. Scores like 86.95 or 90.07 might be from previous years or other countries, and 99.95 seems too high to be realistic for this metric.

The wedding of Jeff Bezos and Lauren Sánchez in June 2025 was a highly publicized event. Venice, Italy (Option A) is the correct location, known for its romantic setting. Other options like Dubrovnik or Santorini, though popular destinations, were not the chosen venue. Cannes is more associated with film festivals.

The Ballon d'Or 2025 was awarded to Ousmane Dembele. This marks a shift from usual winners like Messi or Ronaldo, emphasizing the need to stay updated with latest sports news. Dembele's performance in the 2024-25 season would have been exceptional to secure this award, so option A is correct.

V Srinivas was elected as the President of IIAS for the 2025-2028 term from India. This appointment highlights his contributions to administrative sciences. Other options like Murmu or Chandrasekhar might hold significant positions in India but are not linked to this specific international role.

Valueattics Reinsurance, India's first private reinsurer approved by IRDAI in March 2025, is promoted by Prem Watsa and Kamesh Goyal (Option D). Watsa is known for his investments in the insurance sector, making this association credible. Other options involve prominent business figures but are not directly related to this venture.

Option A is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Government Schemes, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This question assesses awareness of recent sports events, specifically the 2025 ISSF World Cup. Suruchi Singh's winning scores of 10.5 and 9.5 (Option A) are notable as they reflect high precision in shooting competitions. The correct option stands out because scores in such tournaments often have decimal points due to the scoring system. Options with lower or rounded numbers (e.g., 10.0 and 9.0) are less likely in a competitive final round, helping eliminate other choices.

The question focuses on state-specific portal launches in 2025. Uttar Pradesh (Option A) introduced the strengthened 'SHe-Box portal' to address gender-related issues, aligning with the state's initiatives for women's safety. Other states listed (Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Punjab) may have similar portals, but the key is recognizing which state specifically enhanced theirs in May 2025, so option A is correct.

This tests knowledge of India's position in the 2025 Global Hunger Index. The correct rank, 102nd (Option A), indicates a moderate improvement or decline compared to previous years. Students must recall that India's ranking in such indices often faces criticism and discussion in the media. Options like 10th (C) are implausibly high, while 85th (B) and 105th (D) might confuse those mixing up years or indices, but the 2025 data specifically points to 102nd.

The CMS-03 satellite launch's significance lies in it being the heaviest communication satellite launched by India (Option D). This fact highlights ISRO's technological advancements in payload capacity. The other choices like the first navigation satellite (A) or Mars mission (B) refer to earlier milestones (e.g., IRNSS or Mangalyaan), while the 'private payload' (C) might confuse with recent private sector collaborations, but CMS-03's primary distinction is its weight and communication role.

The introduction of NACH 3.0 in July 2025 is attributed to the National Payments Corporation of India (Option A), which oversees the NACH system. This upgrade aimed to enhance transaction speed and security. The Reserve Bank of India (D) regulates payments but doesn't directly introduce such systems, while Life Insurance Corporation (B) and National Securities Depository Limited (C) are unrelated to NACH operations, making Option A the only logical choice.

The question focuses on a specific tech-driven disaster preparedness initiative in Tripura launched in August 2025. Key point: understanding recent state-level projects aimed at enhancing disaster management through technology. The correct answer, 26, indicates the proposed number of automated weather stations and rain gauges. This detail is crucial as it highlights the scale of the initiative. The other choices (14, 10, 15) are plausible but incorrect numbers, possibly mixing up figures from similar projects or different phases of the same initiative. To answer correctly, one must recall the exact details of this Tripura-specific project, emphasizing the importance of staying updated with state-wise current affairs, especially those related to technology and disaster preparedness.

The number of protons determines the element. For A: 20 protons correspond to Calcium (Ca, atomic number 20). For B: 19 protons correspond to Potassium (K, atomic number 19). Option C identifies A as Calcium and B as Potassium. Option A swaps these, B incorrectly assigns Magnesium (12 protons) to B, and D misidentifies both elements. Neutron numbers do not affect elemental identity, only isotopes.

Start by placing L at the far right since no one sits to the right of L. With only one person between L and K, K must be third from the right. C is immediately left of K, so C is fourth from the right. B has three people between them and K, placing B at the far left. J is immediately right of D, and the remaining position must be I. The arrangement is B, I, D, J, C, K, L. So, two people (D and J) sit between I and J, but since the item asks for people between I and J, the correct count is two (positions of D and the space after I), so option A is correct.

The 16th Finance Commission's Chairperson is a factual recall. D, Arvind Panagariya, appointed in 2024 is the answer. Other options: N.K. Singh chaired the 15th, Raghuram Rajan was RBI Governor, Suman Bery headed NITI Aayog. Eliminate based on recent appointments.