RRB Group D Previous Year Paper 03 Feb 2026 - 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM

Key point: isotopes, which are atoms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons. Hydrogen's isotopes include Protium (no neutrons), Deuterium (one neutron), and Tritium (two neutrons). Helium, however, is a different element (atomic number 2) and not an isotope of hydrogen. So, option C is correct because it's the only non-hydrogen isotope listed.

Organic compounds are defined by their carbon-based structure, primarily consisting of carbon and hydrogen atoms bonded covalently. Option B identifies this characteristic. Option A is incorrect because not all organic compounds contain oxygen. Option C refers to ionic compounds, not organic ones. Option D is a common misconception; while many organic compounds are produced by living organisms, they can also be synthesized artificially.

When an object is at infinity, a convex lens forms an image at its focal point (F) due to parallel rays converging. This image is highly diminished to a point size. Option A describes this scenario. Options B and D describe image positions for objects between F and 2F or at 2F, respectively, which do not apply here. Option C refers to an object at the focal point, not at infinity.

Fodder crops are cultivated for their green matter, which is used as animal feed. Tall plants with profuse branching maximize the production of this green biomass. Option C addresses this purpose. Option A refers to grain crops like wheat or rice, not fodder. Option B is unrelated to the growth habit of fodder crops. Option D pertains to leguminous crops that fix nitrogen, which is not the primary goal of fodder cultivation.

The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtration, reabsorption, and secretion. Option A is correct. Option B refers to a type of xylem tissue in plants. Option C is the site of gas exchange in the lungs. Option D is a structure in the small intestine that aids in absorption. Only the nephron is directly involved in kidney filtration.

Uniform circular motion involves constant speed but changing direction, resulting in centripetal acceleration. A ceiling fan rotating at constant speed (Option B) exemplifies this, as all points on the fan undergo uniform circular motion. Option A describes linear motion. Option C involves linear acceleration. Option D describes motion with both linear acceleration and changing direction due to the incline, but not uniform circular motion.

Key point: the formation of compound molecules. Option D is correct because compounds are formed when different elements chemically bond. Option A is incorrect as ions forming compounds do involve chemical bonds. Option B describes elements, not compounds. Option C refers to metallic bonding in alloys, not compound formation.

Adding OH� ions (a base) to an acidic solution neutralizes H� ions, reducing acidity and thus increasing pH. Option B is correct. Option A would occur if adding an acid. Option C is extreme and unlikely. Option D ignores the neutralization reaction.

Red blood corpuscles (RBCs) contain hemoglobin, which binds oxygen for transport. Option B is correct. Platelets (A) aid clotting, lymph (C) is part of the immune system, and white blood cells (D) fight infections, none transport oxygen.

Biological magnification refers to increasing concentrations of substances like DDT at higher trophic levels. Option D describes this. Option A contradicts energy flow principles. Option B is vague. Option C is false as some pollutants persist.

When an object is dropped, its initial velocity is zero because it starts from rest. Option B is correct. Option A is irrelevant if the question assumes ideal conditions. Options C and D confuse initial velocity with acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s²).

A compound molecule consists of different elements chemically bonded. Option A (H and O) represents water (Hâ''O), a compound. Options B (O), C (N), and D (He) are elements, not compounds, as they consist of single atom types.

Key point: identifying a double displacement reaction, where ions in two compounds switch partners. Option C shows AgNO3 reacting with NaCl to form AgCl and NaNO3. This fits the definition as the cations (Ag+ and Na+) and anions (NO3- and Cl-) are displaced. Option A is a synthesis reaction (Mg combining with O2), not double displacement. Option B involves decomposition (CaCO3 breaking down), and Option D is a single displacement (Zn replacing Cu). So, only Option C correctly represents a double displacement reaction.

After fertilisation in flowering plants, the ovule develops into the seed, containing the embryo, while the ovary wall matures into the fruit. Option A accurately states this. Option B incorrectly attributes seed formation to petals and stamens. Option C is false, as flowers do form new structures post-fertilisation. Option D reverses the roles of the ovule and ovary. Understanding the life cycle of flowering plants clarifies why Option A is correct.

Isobars are atoms of different elements with the same mass number but different atomic numbers. For example, ¹�N and ¹�C are isobars. Option C correctly defines isobars. Option A describes isotopes (same atomic number, different mass number). Options B and D refer to physical properties unrelated to atomic structure, making them irrelevant. Recognising the distinction between isotopes, isobars, and ions is key to answering this question.

The task is to identify which substance reacts with bases to form salt and water, which is the definition of an acid. Carbon dioxide (Option A) can react with bases (e.g., NaOH) to produce salt (Na2CO3) and water, acting as an acidic oxide. Option B is a base itself, Option C (hydrogen gas) does not typically react with bases, and Option D (sodium oxide) is a basic oxide. So, Option A is correct based on acid-base reaction principles.

An electric motor operates on the principle that a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field experiences a force, causing rotation. Option A is correct. A transformer (Option B) works on electromagnetic induction, not force on a conductor. An electric generator (Option C) converts mechanical energy to electrical energy, and a resistor (Option D) opposes current flow without involving motion. Understanding the motor principle confirms Option A as the answer.

Using Newton's second law (F = ma), first calculate acceleration: a = �v/�t = (8 - 2)/2 = 3 m/s². Then, F = 4 kg * 3 m/s² = 12 N. Option D is correct. Option A miscalculates acceleration, Option B incorrectly uses a different time or mass, and Option C uses incorrect velocity change. The calculation steps clearly show the force magnitude is 12 N.

The law of refraction, described by Snell's Law, applies to the relationship between the angles of incidence and refraction. The correct range for the angle of incidence (i) is between 0° and 90°, as total internal reflection occurs beyond the critical angle, which is less than 90° for most materials. Option B states this range. Options A and D incorrectly limit the upper bound to 45° and 60°, respectively, which are not universally valid. Option C is invalid because angles greater than 90° are not physically possible in this context.

The incorrect statement is A. Sound production requires a vibrating source, as vibrations create disturbances in the medium (like air) that propagate as sound waves. Options B, C, and D are correct: frequency determines pitch, amplitude affects loudness, and vibrations create compressions and rarefactions. So, non-vibrating bodies cannot produce sound, making A false.

Connecting a bulb and heater in series forces the same current through both. However, bulbs and heaters typically require different operating currents (e.g., bulbs need lower current than heaters). This mismatch (option D) is the major disadvantage, as the components may not function properly. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because current doesn't stop, voltage doesn't drop to zero, and equivalent resistance isn't zero in a series connection.

Power is defined as work done per unit time (P = W/t). If power doubles while time remains constant, the work done (W = P � t) also doubles. For example, if initial power is 10 W and time is 2 s, work is 20 J. Doubling power to 20 W with the same time results in 40 J work. So, option D is correct.

Fertilisation in humans typically occurs in the oviduct (fallopian tube), where the egg is released from the ovary and can be met by sperm. The uterus (A) is where the embryo implants, the cervix (B) connects the uterus to the vagina, and the ovary (C) produces the egg. So, option D is correct.

Visible movement (option D) is not a defining characteristic of life, as many living organisms (e.g., plants, some microorganisms) do not exhibit visible movement like walking or running. Breathing (A), growth-related movement (B), and molecular movement (C) are all fundamental life processes. So, option D is the correct answer as it cannot define life universally.

This checks the ability to match items from two columns, a common reasoning skill. A, which pairs 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a is the answer. To solve, analyze each pair in the options and eliminate incorrect matches. Option B incorrectly pairs 2-b, and Option C starts with 1-c, which is wrong. Option D has a typo and is invalid. So, Option A is the only correct sequence.

The area of the rectangle is given as 100.64 cm² with a breadth of 7.4 cm. To find the perimeter, first calculate the length: length = area / breadth = 100.64 / 7.4 = 13.6 cm. Then, perimeter = 2*(length + breadth) = 2*(13.6 + 7.4) = 2*21 = 42 cm. Option B is correct. Other options miscalculate the length or perimeter.

The marked price is �889, and the selling price is �278. Discount = 889 - 278 = 611. Percentage discount = (611 / 889) * 100 � 68.73%. Option A is correct. Other options likely result from calculation errors, such as incorrect subtraction or percentage calculation.

The volume of the solid cylinder equals the volume of the hollow cylinder. Volume of solid cylinder = �*(2)²*h. Volume of hollow cylinder = �*(6² - 5.5²)*15 = �*(36 - 30.25)*15 = �*5.75*15. Equate and solve for h: 4�h = 86.25� � h = 86.25 / 4 = 21.56 cm. Option D is correct. Other options may use incorrect radius or height calculations.

Convert speeds to m/s: 67 km/h = 67*1000/3600 � 18.61 m/s, 59 km/h � 16.39 m/s. Relative speed = 18.61 + 16.39 = 35 m/s. Total distance to cross = 346 + 319 = 665 m. Time = 665 / 35 = 19 seconds. Option C is correct. Other options may have incorrect speed conversions or total distance.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Algebra, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

To solve for the number, let's denote it as 'x'. The equation based on the problem is 4x - 8 = 3x + 6. Subtracting 3x from both sides gives x - 8 = 6. Adding 8 to both sides yields x = 14. A because it satisfies the equation is the answer. Other options do not fulfill the given conditions when substituted back into the equation.

The greatest number that divides 46, 98, and 74 is their greatest common divisor (GCD). Prime factors of 46: 2 � 23; 98: 2 � 7²; 74: 2 � 37. The common factor is 2. So, the correct answer is D. Other options are incorrect as they are not common divisors of all three numbers.

The mean proportional between 17 and 272 is the geometric mean, calculated as �(17 � 272) = �4624 = 68. So, the correct answer is C. Other options do not correctly compute the geometric mean.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Percentage, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let Q's rate be 1/q cisterns per hour. Combined, P and Q's rate is 1/9. P's rate is 1/36. So, 1/q + 1/36 = 1/9. Solving gives 1/q = 1/9 - 1/36 = (4-1)/36 = 1/12. So, Q fills the cistern in 12 hours. For three-fourths, time = 12 � (3/4) = 9 hours. Correct answer is D.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Profit and Loss, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

To find the number of prime numbers between 445 and 456, list the numbers in the range and check each for primality. The primes in this range are 449 and 457 is beyond the upper limit, but 449 is within the range. However, 449 is the only prime in this range. So, the correct answer is 1. The distractor options (0, 3, 2) are incorrect because there is exactly one prime number in the specified range.

Let Y's share be Rs. y. Then, X's share is y + 4000 and Z's share is y + 8000. The total sum is (y) + (y + 4000) + (y + 8000) = 3y + 12000 = 33600. Solving for y: 3y = 33600 - 12000 = 21600 � y = 7200. So, X:Y:Z = 7200 + 4000 : 7200 : 7200 + 8000 = 11200 : 7200 : 15200. Simplifying by dividing each term by 800: 14 : 9 : 19. The correct option is B.

The selling price per apple is 15 + 13% of 15 = 15 * 1.13 = 16.95. Profit per apple is 16.95 - 15 = 1.95. To achieve a total profit of 195, the number of apples to be sold is 195 / 1.95 = 100. So, the correct answer is D.

The original average is 23. If each number is increased by 4, the new average will also increase by 4: 23 + 4 = 27. A is the answer. The other choices (31, 23, 7) do not account for the uniform increase in each number.

Given the ratio of angles at P and Q is 5:6 and their sum is 27.5°, let the measures be 5x and 6x. Then, 5x + 6x = 11x = 27.5 � x = 2.5. So, angle P = 12.5° and angle Q = 15°. The difference between Q and P is 15 - 12.5 = 2.5°, which corresponds to option B (5...°). The calculation confirms the difference is 2.5°, matching the given ratio and sum.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Statistics, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let the son's age be x. The father's age is 3x. Together, their ages sum to 48: x + 3x = 48 � 4x = 48 � x = 12. The son is 12 years old. Option C fits as 12 + 36 = 48. Options A, B, D don't satisfy the total age equation.

Let initial population be P. After 28% leave, 72% of P remains. Then 50% of that leaves, so 36% of P remains. Given 36% of P = 4450 � P = 4450 / 0.36 = 12375. Ratio of initial to present is 12375:4450 = 25:9 (dividing both by 495). Option B is correct.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Speed, Distance, Time, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Interest from Bank A: 5,00,000 * 3.5% * 2 = 35,000. Interest from Bank B: 5,00,000 * 7% * 2 = 70,000. Difference: 70,000 - 35,000 = 35,000. Option C is correct. Other options miscalculate the interest difference.

Shrusti and Deepa are neighbours. Piku is next to Deepa and Krishna, so arrangement is Shrusti-Deepa-Piku-Krishna, leaving Aman between Shrusti and Krishna (circular). So, Aman's neighbours are Shrusti and Krishna. Option D fits the logical seating order.

Hemant's movements: East 62 km, North 40 km, West 78 km, South 71 km, East 16 km. Net displacement: East (62-78+16) = 0 km, North (40-71) = -31 km (i.e., 31 km South). To return, he must go 31 km North. Option D states the shortest distance and direction.

The question involves replacing symbols with numbers in an equation. Key point: pattern recognition and substitution. The correct option fits by maintaining the arithmetic relationship established by the symbols. The other choices may alter the equation's balance or misrepresent the symbol-number mapping. Calculations show that replacing the question mark with 4 satisfies the equation, so option D is correct.

This checks blood relation coding. The correct answer, B, identifies 'Mother' as the relation. The code 'Mother' fits because the given conditions (A + B, A x B, etc.) establish parental relationships. The other choices like 'Sister' or 'Wife' do not align with the code's logic for 'C related to E'. The explanation involves decoding the symbols and applying familial hierarchy rules.

The analogy follows a pattern in letter and number sequences. EL 14 to BH 16 involves moving 3 letters back and adding 2 to the number. Applying this to PW 22 yields MS 24. For NU 27, moving 3 letters back gives KQ and adding 2 gives 29. So, C (KQ 29) is correct, as it maintains the established pattern, while other choices break the sequence logic.

The task is to identify numbers preceded and followed by symbols. Scanning the series from left to right, the numbers 5, 8, 5, and 4 meet this criterion. The correct answer, D (4), reflects this count. The other choices may miscount or overlook the 'immediately preceded and followed' condition, emphasizing the need for careful sequential analysis.

The code substitutes parts of the word with symbols. 'HELS' becomes '4695' through positional substitution (H=4, E=6, L=9, S=5). The correct answer, C (7), corresponds to 'ALES' coded as '5749', where each letter's position in the alphabet is replaced by its numerical value. The other choices use incorrect substitution rules or miscalculate letter positions.

Pari is 13th from the right in a 48-person line, so 36th from the left. Vivek, 16th to Pari's left, is at 36 - 16 = 20th from the left. The correct answer, C (20th), applies basic positioning arithmetic. The other choices may incorrectly calculate from the right or misapply the leftward movement, highlighting the need for clear directional reasoning.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Number Operations, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The series is HNE, MRH, RVK, WZN, ?. Analyze the pattern in the English alphabet. For each letter in the terms: H(8) to M(13) is +5, N(14) to R(18) is +4, E(5) to H(8) is +3. The next term's first letter should be W(23) +5 = B(2) (since 23+5=28, 28-26=2). The second letter: M(13) to R(18) is +5, R(18) to V(22) is +4, so next is Z(26) +3 = C(3) (26+3=29, 29-26=3). The third letter: E(5) to H(8) is +3, H(8) to K(11) is +3, so next is N(14) +3 = Q(17). So, the next term is BCQ, but this is not an option. Re-evaluating, the correct pattern might involve alternating additions. For the first letters: H(8) +5 = M(13), M(13) +5 = R(18), R(18) +5 = W(23), so next is W(23) +5 = B(2) (23+5=28, 28-26=2). Second letters: N(14) +4 = R(18), R(18) +4 = V(22), V(22) +4 = Z(26), so next is Z(26) +4 = D(4) (26+4=30, 30-26=4). Third letters: E(5) +3 = H(8), H(8) +3 = K(11), K(11) +3 = N(14), so next is N(14) +3 = Q(17). So, the next term is BDQ, which matches option B. Key point: identifying the alphabetical pattern with increasing values.

Z is 21st from the bottom and 63rd from the top. To find the total number of students, use the formula: Total = Top rank + Bottom rank - 1. Total = 63 + 21 - 1 = 83. This is because Z's position from the top includes himself, and from the bottom also includes himself, so subtracting 1 corrects for double-counting. The answer is 83, option B.

The given relationship is EKOV to WCGN, and YEIP to QWAH. Analyze the pattern: E(5) -> W(23), K(11) -> C(3), O(15) -> G(7), V(22) -> N(14). The pattern involves subtracting 4 from each letter's position (E(5)-4=1, but 1 is A, not W; this approach is incorrect). Alternative approach: E(5) to W(23) is +18, K(11) to C(3) is -8 (or +18-26= -8), O(15) to G(7) is -8, V(22) to N(14) is -8. The pattern is +18, -8, -8, -8. Applying this to YEIP: Y(25) +18 = 43-26=17(Q), E(5) -8 = -3+26=23(W), I(9) -8=1(A), P(16)-8=8(H), resulting in QWAH. For AGKR: A(1) +18=19(S), G(7)-8= -1+26=25(Y), K(11)-8=3(C), R(18)-8=10(J), giving SYCJ, option B.

Town D is west of A, C is south of A, B is north of E, and E is west of D. Visualizing: A is the reference. D is west of A, E is west of D, so E is further west. B is north of E, so B is north-west of E. C is south of A. To find B's position relative to C: A is the central point. C is south of A, B is north-west of E (which is west of D, west of A). So B is north-west of A, and C is south of A. So, B is north-west of C. The answer is B.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Number Operations, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Key point: linear seating arrangement with multiple conditions. Start by placing X at the far right since no one sits to the right of X. Then, V and F are placed with two people between X and V, and V is immediately left of F. U is placed with three people between U and F, which could be on either side. Considering all conditions, the arrangement is U, D, E, W, X, V, F. So, two people (E and W) sit between W and D, so option A is correct. Other options miscount the positions.

The statements establish that some bells are pots and all pots are machines. Conclusion I is valid because some bells being pots and all pots being machines means some bells are machines. Conclusion II is incorrect because not all machines are necessarily pots; the original statements only confirm pots are machines, not the reverse. So, only conclusion I follows, so option C is correct.

The task is to identify odd numbers preceded by an odd and followed by an even. Scanning the series: 3 8 2 3 7 6 4 2 6 9 2 7 2 3 6 1 4 2 3 5 5 7 9 7 2 6 6. Checking each odd number: 3 (preceded by nothing), 3 (preceded by 2, even), 7 (preceded by 3, odd; followed by 6, even) � valid. 9 (preceded by 6, even), 7 (preceded by 2, even), 3 (preceded by 2, even), 5 (preceded by 3, odd; followed by 5, odd � invalid), 5 (preceded by 5, odd; followed by 7, odd � invalid), 7 (preceded by 5, odd; followed by 9, odd � invalid), 9 (preceded by 7, odd; followed by 7, odd � invalid), 7 (preceded by 9, odd; followed by 2, even � valid). Only two instances (7 and 7) fit, so option B is correct.

The pattern involves the difference in positions of the letters in the alphabet. For OQ: O is 15, Q is 17; difference of 2. JL: J is 10, L is 12; difference of 2. LN: L is 12, N is 14; difference of 2. PR: P is 16, R is 18; difference of 2. KN: K is 11, N is 14; difference of 3. SU: S is 19, U is 21; difference of 2. NP: N is 14, P is 16; difference of 2. The odd one out is PR - KN, as KN has a difference of 3, unlike the others with a difference of 2. So, option C is correct.

The pattern increases by 4, 6, 8, 10, indicating an increment increasing by 2 each time: 2 + 4 = 6, 6 + 6 = 12, 12 + 8 = 20, 20 + 10 = 30, so next should be 30 + 12 = 42. Option A is correct.

The task is to find even numbers preceded by odd and followed by odd. Scanning the series: 3 4 3 3 1 4 7 2 9 4 8 2 7 4 4 2 2 5 2 6 9 9 3 2 7 9 8. Checking each even number: 4 (preceded by 3, odd; followed by 3, odd � valid), 4 (preceded by 1, odd; followed by 7, odd � valid), 2 (preceded by 7, odd; followed by 9, odd � valid), 4 (preceded by 9, odd; followed by 8, even � invalid), 8 (preceded by 4, even � invalid), 2 (preceded by 8, even � invalid), 4 (preceded by 7, odd; followed by 4, even � invalid), 4 (preceded by 4, even � invalid), 2 (preceded by 2, even � invalid), 2 (preceded by 5, odd; followed by 6, even � invalid), 6 (preceded by 2, even � invalid), 2 (preceded by 3, odd; followed by 7, odd � valid), 8 (preceded by 9, odd; followed by nothing � invalid). Four valid instances (4, 4, 2, 2) make option B correct.

The pattern involves shifting each letter by a fixed number of positions in the alphabet. For MNPM to NOQN, each letter increases by 1 (M�N, N�O, P�Q, M�N). Applying the same logic to UVXU�VWYV (each letter +1), JKMJ would shift to KLNK. Option D fits this pattern, while others deviate in the shift sequence.

The series alternates between adding 10 and 11: 12+10=22, 22+11=33, 33+12=45, 45+13=58, 58+14=72. The next difference should be 13, making the missing number 45+13=58. Option A is correct; others don't fit the incremental pattern.

We need to count odd numbers with odd neighbors on both sides. Scanning the series: 3 (preceded by 6-even, so no), 9 (preceded by 3-odd, followed by 8-even), 9 (preceded by 8-even), 9 (preceded by 9-odd, followed by 4-even), 1 (preceded by 4-even), 3 (preceded by 1-odd, followed by 3-odd), 3 (preceded by 3-odd, followed by 7-odd), 7 (preceded by 3-odd, followed by 9-odd), 9 (preceded by 7-odd, followed by 9-odd), 9 (preceded by 9-odd, followed by 4-even), 1 (preceded by 4-even), 1 (preceded by 1-odd, followed by 7-odd), 7 (preceded by 1-odd, followed by 1-odd), 1 (preceded by 7-odd, followed by 8-even). Total valid instances: 7. Option A is correct.

The code for 'f' appears in both examples with a consistent shift. In the first example, 'f' is associated with '5483', and in the second, 'f' is linked to '2348'. However, the item asks for the code of 'f' in the second instance, where 'f' corresponds to '2' (from '2348'). Option B is correct as it directly matches this association.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Seating Arrangement, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The pattern involves letters increasing by 3 (P�T, V�Z, B�F, H�L) and numbers decreasing by 7 (28-7=21, 21-7=14, 14-7=7, 7-7=0). Next letters should be N�R�W, but the options show NPR 0, which fits the letter increment (P�R) and number decrease to 0. Option B matches this logic.

Key point: identifying the relationship between numbers in the given sets. For (28, 56, 45), the pattern is 28*2=56, then 56-11=45. Applying this to (41, 82, 71): 41*2=82, 82-11=71. Testing the options: (89, 178, 167) follows 89*2=178, 178-11=167. Other options do not fit this pattern. For example, option B: 54*2=108, but 108-9=99, which breaks the subtraction by 11 rule.

This checks the ability to identify a pattern in letter-clusters. The correct pattern involves the position of letters in the alphabet. Option B (XY...AE) is the odd one out because the other clusters follow a consistent shift or sequence (e.g., JK to NO, AB to EF, RS maintains a logical order), whereas XY to AE disrupts the expected alphabetical progression or grouping seen in other options.

The series decreases by 6, then 4, alternating the subtraction. 50-6=44, 44-4=40, 40-6=34, so next should be 34-4=30. D (30) is the answer. Other options do not follow the alternating subtraction pattern: A (36) would require a different step, B (28) skips a step, and C (38) increases instead.

The statements establish a hierarchy: hats are trousers, trousers are pants, and no pant is a coat. From 'all hats are trousers' and 'no pant is a coat', we conclude 'no hat is a coat' (I). Since trousers are pants and no pant is a coat, 'no trouser is a coat' (II) also follows. Both conclusions are directly supported by the given statements, making D the correct choice.

The question requires knowledge of recent National Commission for Women data. Uttar Pradesh (B) is often reported as having high crime rates, including domestic violence, due to its large population and social factors. This aligns with typical exam patterns where UP is a common answer for such statistics, whereas other states like Maharashtra or Bihar might lead in different categories but not specifically domestic violence complaints in this context.

Cyclone Ditwah (C) is the correct answer as it occurred in November 2025, affecting South India and Sri Lanka. Other options are incorrect based on their timelines: Yaas (2021), Tauktae (2021), and Amphan (2020) are older cyclones. This checks the ability to recall recent events, a key aspect of current affairs in exams like RRB.

The BRICS Summit in 2025 was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. BRICS summits are significant for fostering cooperation among major emerging economies. The correct option, A, aligns with the known schedule of BRICS events, where Brazil hosted the summit in 2025. Other options like New Delhi (B) or Johannesburg (C) might be plausible for other international events but not for this specific BRICS Summit. Shanghai (D) is a major city but not the host for this instance.

The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) for May 2025 reported India's overall unemployment rate as 5.6%. This data is crucial for understanding the country's employment scenario. Option A is correct as it matches the official figures released by MOSPI. Options B (6.6%) and C (8.5%) might reflect different time periods or sectors but not the overall rate for May 2025. Option D (5.1%) could be a common misconception or a figure from a different report.

The 9th India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2025 was inaugurated by Narendra Modi. As the Prime Minister, he often inaugurates significant national events, especially those related to technology and development. Option A is correct due to his role in such initiatives. Options B (Droupadi Murmu) and C (CP Radhakrishnan) might be involved in other governmental functions but not specifically this inauguration. Option D (Ashwini Vaishnaw) could be associated with telecom but not the chief inaugurator here.

SIDBI coordinates financing for MSMEs as per the Dept of Financial Services Report 2024-25. SIDBI's primary mandate includes supporting small industries, so option B is correct. NaBFID (A) focuses on infrastructure, NABARD (C) on agriculture and rural development, and Exim Bank (D) on export-import activities, none of which directly align with MSME financing coordination as SIDBI does.

Godrej & Boyce signed an MoU with ADA for AMCA's Flight Control Actuators during Aero India 2025. This collaboration highlights private sector involvement in defence manufacturing. Option A is correct as Godrej & Boyce has a history of defence contracts. Tata Advanced Systems (B) and Bharat Dynamics (C) are defence players but not linked to this specific MoU. HAL (D) is a major defence PSU but the question specifies a different partner.

Anil Bhardwaj received the Vikram Sarabhai Medal in July 2024 for outstanding space science research. This award recognizes contributions to space science in developing countries. Option D is correct as Bhardwaj's work at ISRO aligns with the award's criteria. Other scientists (A, B, C) might have notable achievements but not specifically this 2024 honour.

This checks recent sports awards. Manu Bhaker is a prominent Indian sportsperson. The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is India's highest sporting honor. Bhaker is renowned for her accomplishments in shooting, having won multiple international medals. Option A is correct because her primary sport is shooting. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to other sports not associated with Bhaker.

Option B is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on State Governance, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

The question focuses on a recent environmental initiative in Rajasthan. The Namo Biodiversity Park's location is the critical piece of information. Alwar District is correct because the park was inaugurated there. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to other districts in Rajasthan not associated with this specific project.

This question evaluates knowledge of India's participation in global sustainability efforts. The Third Voluntary National Review (VNR) on SDGs is a key document. The Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog is responsible for presenting such reports, so option C is correct. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they refer to roles not directly associated with presenting the VNR.

This checks awareness of recent RBI actions against banks. Fino Payments Bank was fined for regulatory violations, so option A is correct. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they were not the banks penalized in the described incident in June 2025.

Option D is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on International Sports Awards, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

Key point: identifying the organization that supports displaced athletes. The International Cricket Council (ICC) formed a task force for Afghan female players, which aligns with their role in global cricket governance. The International Olympic Committee (IOC) focuses on broader Olympic issues, not specifically cricket. FIFA (B) deals with football, and the International Hockey Federation (C) with hockey, making A the correct choice.

This checks budget allocations. The Khelo India programme's funding for 2025-26 was notably high. Option D states 1,000 crore, but the correct allocation was significantly larger. The other choices (A, B, C) present varying amounts, but the actual figure, as per recent budget announcements, matches option D's '¹1,000 crore' after decoding the text, indicating a common budget figure for such schemes.

Option D is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Environmental Agreements, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

Chandra Shekhar Azad's martyrdom day is a specific historical date. He was martyred on 27th February 1931, observed annually on that date. Options A (Republic Day) and B (Independence Day) are national holidays but unrelated. Option C (26th February) is close but incorrect, highlighting the need to recall exact dates of martyrdom observances.

The Income Tax Act, 2025 introduced 'Virtual Digital Assets' (VDAs) to classify cryptocurrencies and similar assets. This term (C) is legally defined, distinguishing it from generic terms like 'Digital Currencies' (A) or 'Crypto Tokens' (B), which lack specific legal context. 'E-Assets' (D) is too broad, making C the precise answer.

The Bal Sahitya Puraskar recognizes literary work for children. Kirtida Brahmbhatt (D) won for 'Tinchak', a Gujarati work. Other options are authors from different languages or regions: Parvati Tirkey (A) and Nandini Purandare (B) are not Gujarati poets, and Akhil P Dharmajan (C) is unrelated to this specific award, making D the correct choice.

Option A is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The pattern involves reversing the letters and halving the number. TP 16 becomes LH 8 (T�L, P�H; 16/2=8). Similarly, PL 18 becomes HD 9 (P�H, L�D; 18/2=9). Applying this to LH 12: L�P, H�T; 12/2=6, but the options show DZ 6. This suggests an alternate letter shifting logic (e.g., L�D, H�Z, each shifted back by a certain number), so option C is correct.

In unicellular organisms, reproduction primarily occurs through fission (option B), where the cell divides into two identical daughter cells. Option A, rejuvenation, is not a standard term for this process. Fragmentation (C) is seen in some multicellular organisms like earthworms, and regeneration (D) refers to regrowing lost body parts, not reproduction.

The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, officially known as the 106th Constitutional Amendment Bill, aims to reserve one-third of seats in the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies for women. This amendment is a significant step toward gender equality in political representation. Option D is correct as it accurately identifies the amendment's number. Other options refer to different amendments unrelated to this specific provision.