RRB NTPC UG Previous Year Paper 22 Aug 2025 - 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM

Key point: understanding common keyboard shortcuts. Ctrl + F is universally recognized for the 'find' function across various applications and web browsers. Option A identifies this function. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because formatting documents (B) is typically done with other shortcuts like Ctrl + B for bold, forwarding emails (C) involves different steps depending on the email client, and finding files on the desktop (D) would usually involve searching the operating system's file explorer, not a universal shortcut like Ctrl + F.

The question focuses on evidence of centralised administration in the Indus-Sarasvati civilisation. Standardised weights and measures (C) indicate a uniform system across the civilisation, which is a strong sign of central control. This contrasts with options like elaborate royal tombs (A) or monumental palaces and temples (D), which are more indicative of hierarchical societies but not necessarily centralised administration. The absence of seals and script (B) would actually suggest less centralisation, making C the clear choice.

Option A is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Government Schemes, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This checks recent appointments in India's governance structure. Gyanesh Kumar (C) was appointed Chief Election Commissioner in February 2025. Sunil Arora (A) and Sushil Chandra (B) are former CECs, while Rajiv Kumar (D) might be confused with other roles. Keeping track of current appointments is crucial, as older names (A, B) are common other choices in such questions.

The Lokpal (C) is the correct answer as it is a statutory anti-corruption body established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, to investigate complaints against public servants. The Union Public Service Commission (A) handles recruitment, the Election Commission (B) oversees elections, and the Finance Commission (D) deals with financial resource distribution. Understanding the specific roles of these bodies is key to eliminating incorrect options.

The question pertains to the steel industry's raw materials. Manganese (C) is essential as an alloying agent to harden steel. Bauxite (A) is used in aluminium production, Limestone (B) is a flux in steelmaking but doesn't harden steel, and Mica (D) is used in electrical equipment. Recognizing the specific role of manganese in the steel hardening process is critical for selecting the correct answer.

This checks recent sports events. The Italian Open is a major tennis tournament. Carlos Alcaraz winning in 2025 is a current event. Options A, C, and D are top players but did not win this specific title. Medvedev, Nadal, and Djokovic are frequently in news, but the 'maiden' win points to a first-time winner, fitting Alcaraz's recent rise.

The Twelfth Schedule lists municipal corporation functions under the 74th Amendment. Urban planning (A) and poverty alleviation (C) are key municipal roles. Public health (D) is also a local governance issue. Foreign trade promotion (B) is a central government or external affairs function, not a municipal responsibility, making it the correct answer.

Human development challenges in India include disparities in income, education, and healthcare. Persistent regional disparities (A) reflect unequal growth across states. High foreign exchange reserves (B) are an economic strength, not a challenge. Increasing digital infrastructure (C) and rapid urbanisation (D) are developmental outcomes, not obstacles, making A the clear choice.

The Kyrgyzstan-Tajikistan border dispute resolution is a recent geopolitical event. Bishkek (D) is the capital of Kyrgyzstan, a likely venue for such agreements. Osh (A) and Batken (B) are cities in Kyrgyzstan but less likely for international treaties. Dushanbe (C) is Tajikistan's capital, but the agreement being signed in the Kyrgyz capital indicates mutual consent, reinforcing D as correct.

The Great Indian Desert, or Thar Desert, is primarily in Rajasthan. Gujarat (A) lies south of Rajasthan, bordering the desert's southern edge. Madhya Pradesh (B) is east, Uttar Pradesh (C) further north-east, and Haryana (D) north of Rajasthan, making A the correct geographical placement.

Exercise Dharma Guardian is a joint India-Japan military exercise. East Fuji (C) is a known training area in Japan, hosting such exercises. Pune (A) and New Delhi (D) are Indian locations, but the exercise is conducted in Japan. Tokyo (B) is the capital, not a typical military exercise site, confirming C as the accurate answer.

The answer depends on the title given to Lala Lajpat Rai. The correct answer is 'Punjab Kesari' (C), which means 'Lion of Punjab'. This title was bestowed upon him due to his fearless and aggressive activism during the Indian independence movement. Option A, 'Tilak of Punjab', is incorrect because 'Tilak' refers to Bal Gangadhar Tilak, a different leader. Option B, 'Deshbandhu', was a title given to Chittaranjan Das. Option D, 'Mahamana', refers to Madan Mohan Malaviya. So, only option C accurately reflects Lala Lajpat Rai's recognition.

The question concerns the dimensions of velocity. Velocity is defined as displacement over time, so its dimensions are Length (L) divided by Time (T), or [L T�¹]. The correct option must represent this. Option D, 'M� L¹ T�¹', matches this derivation (mass dimension is zero). Options A and B incorrectly include mass (M) or have incorrect exponents. Option C's formatting is unclear but does not correctly present the dimensions. So, option D is correct based on dimensional analysis principles.

The answer depends on the conventional rod puppet shows of West Bengal. The correct answer is 'Putul Nautch' (A), which is the traditional rod puppetry form of the region. Option B, 'Gombeyatta', relates to Karnataka's leather puppetry. Option C, 'Yakshagana', is a dance-drama from Karnataka. Option D, 'Kathputli', refers to the string puppetry of Rajasthan. Understanding the regional association of each art form is key to eliminating other choices and selecting the correct answer.

The answer depends on a valuable tree in the western Himalayas used in construction. The correct answer is 'Deodar' (D), a cedar species native to the region, known for its durable timber. Option A, 'Rhododendron', is a flowering plant, not primarily used in construction. Option B, 'Magnolia', is ornamental. Option C, 'Cinchona', is known for medicinal properties, particularly quinine. Recognizing the Deodar's strength and regional prevalence clarifies the correct choice.

The question pertains to a 2025 MoU for solar energy and green hydrogen innovation. B, involving the National Solar Energy Federation of India and National Institute of Solar Energy, as these organisations directly align with the solar energy focus is the answer. Options A, C, and D mention organisations less directly related to the specific solar and green hydrogen mandate, making B the most logical and contextually accurate choice based on the event's description.

The question identifies a revolutionary who co-founded the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association, threw a bomb in the Assembly, and was executed at 23 with Sukhdev and Rajguru. Bhagat Singh (B), as these are key facts of his life is the answer. Option A, Uddham Singh, is known for avenging Jallianwala Bagh. Option C, Chandrasekhar Azad, was a fellow revolutionary but not executed in this context. Option D, Ramprasad Bismil, was involved in the Kakori conspiracy. The specific details of the Assembly bombing and the trio's execution confirm B as correct.

This checks recent award ceremonies. The 25th IIFA Awards in 2025 honoured Kartik Aaryan for Bhool Bhulaiyaa 3. Option C is correct because the film's release and award timing align. Shehzada (A) and Chandu Champion (B) are his other films but not linked to this specific award. Satyaprem Ki Katha (D) stars Kartik but was released later, making C the clear choice.

This question assesses understanding of tribal revolts. The Santhal Rebellion (D), led by Sidhu and Kanhu, occurred in 1855-56 against British exploitation. The Kol Mutiny (A) involved the Kol tribe in Chhattisgarh, the Ho uprising (B) took place in Odisha, and the Koya revolts (C) were in Andhra Pradesh. The leaders' names directly match the Santhal Rebellion, eliminating other options.

The question focuses on recent DRDO initiatives. In May 2025, DRDO established a Quantum Technology centre to advance research in this cutting-edge field. While Robotics (A), Nanotechnology (B), and AI (D) are significant, the specific mention of the 2025 inauguration points to Quantum Technology (C) as the correct answer, distinguishing it from other ongoing projects.

This geography question identifies the confluence of Bhaga and Chandra streams. Tandi (C) in Himachal Pradesh, where the Chenab River originates is the answer. Rohtang Pass (A) is a mountain pass, Verinag Spring (B) is the source of the Jhelum River, and Kullu (D) is a district, not a confluence point, making C the accurate choice.

The question examines the Delhi Sultanate period. Qutbuddin Aibak (C), the first Sultan, died in 1210 after falling from his horse during a polo game. Jalaluddin Khilji (A) was the founder of the Khilji dynasty, Firuz Shah Tughluq (B) ruled later, and Ibrahim Lodi (D) was the last Sultan, all unrelated to this specific event, confirming C as correct.

This economics question addresses the colonial services sector. Historical data shows the services sector contributed 15-20% (A) during colonial times, as the economy was primarily agrarian. Options B and C overestimate the sector's share, while D underestimates it, leaving A as the statistically accurate answer based on colonial economic structure.

C4 plants have a specialized mechanism to concentrate CO2 in bundle sheath cells, minimizing photorespiration. Photorespiration (B) is the process absent in C4 plants, unlike C3 plants where it occurs. Transpiration (A) is a universal process in plants, and photosynthesis (C) and respiration (D) are essential in all plant types, making them incorrect options.

The number 2.308 cm has four significant figures. Leading zeros are not counted, but all non-zero digits and trailing zeros in a decimal number are significant. Here, '2', '3', '0', and '8' are all significant. Options A (2) and B (3) undercount, while D (5) overcounts, leaving C (4) as correct.

The Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 allows 16-18-year-olds to be tried as adults specifically for heinous crimes (B), such as rape or murder, due to their serious nature. Drug abuse (A), theft (C), and cybercrime (D) may not necessarily fall under this category unless they are heinous, making B the most accurate answer.

The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (A) provides LPG connections to women in Below Poverty Line (BPL) households to promote clean cooking fuel. Other schemes like Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (B) focus on village development, Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana (C) on housing, and Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (D) on road construction, making them incorrect.

Burning of fossil fuels (C) releases large amounts of CO2 trapped over millions of years, leading to a significant increase in atmospheric CO2. Afforestation (A) reduces CO2, fertilizer use (B) contributes to other pollutants like nitrous oxide, and dam construction (D) has a lesser direct impact on CO2 levels, confirming C as the correct answer.

The Inter-State Council is established under Article 263 (C) of the Indian Constitution, which empowers the President to form such councils for federal coordination. Article 280 (A) relates to the Finance Commission, Article 346 (B) to the President's appointment, and Article 368 (D) to amendment procedures, making them incorrect options.

Key point: the constitutional limit on the size of the State Council of Ministers. Article 164(1A) of the Indian Constitution specifies that the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly. Option D states this 15% limit, making it correct. Options A and B are incorrect as they suggest lower or higher percentages not mandated by the Constitution. Option C is incorrect because a specific limit is indeed defined, ruling out ambiguity.

This checks the classification of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution. The Right to Freedom (Article 19) includes freedoms of speech, assembly, and movement. Option B is correct as it accurately identifies this right. Option A refers to the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18), which is unrelated to these freedoms. Option C, the Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32), pertains to legal recourse for rights violations, not the freedoms themselves. Option D, the Right to Cultural Rights (Article 29-30), concerns cultural and educational rights of minorities, making it irrelevant here.

Option D is marked correct. For this Computer question on Windows 7 Operations, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

This question requires awareness of recent events, specifically book releases by defence personnel. The book 'Ready, Relevant and Resurgent: A Blueprint for the Transformation of India' was authored by CDS General Anil Chauhan, so option C is correct. Options A and B are incorrect as they refer to other officers not associated with this publication. Option D, General Upendra Dwivedi, is also unrelated to the book's authorship. The context of the book's unveiling by the Defence Minister in May 2025 helps pinpoint the correct answer, emphasizing the importance of staying updated with current defence literature.

This checks historical knowledge of India's metro rail development. The first metro line in India, between Esplanade and Bhowanipur in Kolkata, was inaugurated in 1984. Option B is correct as it matches this inaugural year. Option A (1977) predates the event, while options C (1994) and D (1990) postdate it, making them incorrect. The significance of 1984 as the starting year of metro services in India is a key fact for such exams, highlighting the gradual evolution of urban infrastructure in the country.

This question evaluates knowledge of recent scientific advancements in India. The nanoporous multilayered polymeric membrane for high-pressure seawater desalination was developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) in May 2025. Option D is correct as it identifies DRDO's role. Option A incorrectly attributes it to CSIR, which was not involved in this specific project. Option B (ISRO) focuses on space research, unrelated to desalination technology. Option C (DST) oversees scientific policies and funding but did not develop this membrane. Recognising DRDO's contributions to defence and civil technologies is crucial here.

The answer depends on a DRDO-developed system tested in 2025 for detecting and neutralising underwater threats. Maareech (B) is the answer. Maareech is an Advanced Torpedo Defence System designed to detect and neutralise multiple underwater threats, aligning with the description. MIGM (A) is unrelated to underwater systems, Takshak (C) refers to a missile, and Varunastra (D) is a torpedo, not a defensive system.

The question concerns the top 10 hub airports in the Asia-Pacific and Middle East region as per the 2024 ACI rankings. Indira Gandhi International Airport (IGIA) (D) is the answer. IGIA, serving Delhi, is a major hub and has consistently ranked high in connectivity. Chennai (A) and Kempegowda (B) are significant but not in the top 10 in this context. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj (C) is a key airport but the ranking specifically highlights IGIA's position.

The answer depends on ancient inscriptions promoting moral values and governance, considered early written records. Edicts of Ashoka (C) is the answer. These edicts, inscribed on pillars and rocks, reflect Ashoka's moral principles and governance policies post-Kalinga war. The Vedas (A) and Upanishads (B) are ancient scriptures but not inscriptions. Arthashastra (D) is a treatise on statecraft, not inscriptions.

The task is to identify the year the first thermal power plant of the Calcutta Electric Supply Corporation was commissioned. 1899 (B) is the answer. This marks the establishment of one of India's earliest power plants, indicating the onset of industrialisation. Other options (1925, 1909, 1916) are incorrect as they postdate the actual commissioning year, which is a key milestone in India's industrial history.

The question involves calculating the total discount percentage with a 20% scheme discount and an additional 5% cash discount. Let the original price be Rs 100. After a 20% discount, the price becomes Rs 80. A 5% discount on Rs 80 is Rs 4, making the final price Rs 76. Total discount = 100 - 76 = 24%. Option C (24%) is correct. Other options miscalculate the successive discounts.

The question involves dividing Rs 638 in the ratio 2:5:4. The total parts = 2+5+4 = 11. Each part = 638 / 11 = 58. The shares are 2*58 = 116, 5*58 = 290, and 4*58 = 232. The difference between the largest (290) and smallest (116) shares is 290 - 116 = 174. Option B (174) is correct. Other options result from incorrect ratio calculations or part values.

To find the required speed, first calculate the distance covered in the initial 11 hours: 36 km/hr * 11 hr = 396 km. Then, add the next 136 km, totaling 396 + 136 = 532 km. The remaining distance is 574 - 532 = 42 km. The total time taken so far is 11 + (136/34) = 11 + 4 = 15 hours. The remaining time is 18 - 15 = 3 hours. So, the required speed is 42 km / 3 hr = 14 km/hr. Option D is correct because it precisely matches this calculation, while other options do not align with the derived speed.

The formula for the curved surface area of a cylinder is 2�rl. Given the area is 1100 cm² and length (l) is 29 cm, rearrange to solve for radius (r): r = 1100 / (2�*29) � 1100 / (182.21) � 6.03 cm. Option C is correct as it accurately reflects this calculation, whereas other options result from incorrect computations or approximations.

Simple Interest (SI) is calculated as (P * R * T)/100. Here, P = 1200, R = 4% per month, T = 2 months. SI = (1200 * 4 * 2)/100 = 96. Option D is correct because it directly matches this calculation, while other options likely stem from miscalculations of time or rate.

Let Ritik's investment be R and Sanjay's be S. Total investment = R + S = 77600. Profit ratio is R:S = (19000 - 7600):7600 = 11400:7600 = 57:38. So, R = (57/95)*77600 = 46240, S = 31360. Difference = 46240 - 31360 = 14880. However, the closest option provided is B, indicating a possible approximation or rounding difference in the question's options.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Algebra, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Linear Equations, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

To find the overall average, first calculate the total runs scored in all matches. For the first 23 matches: 23 * 40 = 920 runs. For the next 10 matches: 10 * 14 = 140 runs. Total runs = 920 + 140 = 1060. Total matches = 33. Average = 1060 / 33 � 32.12. Option D is correct because it accurately reflects this calculation. Other options likely result from miscalculating total runs or miscounting matches.

The formula for each interior angle of a regular polygon is ((n-2)*180)/n = 140. Solving for n: 180n - 360 = 140n � 40n = 360 � n = 9. The number of diagonals in a polygon is n(n-3)/2. For n=9: 9*6/2 = 27. Option A is correct. Incorrect options may arise from using the wrong formula for diagonals or miscalculating n.

First, find the work rates. 2 men = 1/18 work per day � 1 man = 1/36. 4 women = 1/6 � 1 woman = 1/24. 6 women = 6/24 = 1/4. 9 men = 9/36 = 1/4. Combined rate = 1/4 + 1/4 = 1/2 per day. So, they complete the work in 2 days. Option D is correct. Other options may result from incorrect rate calculations or adding times instead of rates.

Let total voters be x. 96% of x voted, so 0.96x votes. 15% invalid � 0.85*0.96x = 0.816x valid votes. Winning candidate got 80% of valid votes: 0.8*0.816x = 0.6528x. Losing candidate got 0.2*0.816x = 0.1632x. Margin = 0.6528x - 0.1632x = 0.4896x = 1224 � x = 1224 / 0.4896 = 2500. Option D is correct. Errors may come from incorrect percentage applications or margin calculation.

The average of three numbers is 20, so total sum = 20*3 = 60. Two numbers are 18 and 28, summing to 46. Third number = 60 - 46 = 14. Option D is correct. Incorrect options likely result from averaging the given numbers directly or miscalculating the total sum.

The mean proportional between 18 and 32 is the geometric mean: �(18*32) = �576 = 24. Option C is correct. Incorrect options may arise from calculating the arithmetic mean ((18+32)/2 = 25) or misapplying the proportion concept.

The relationship between HCF, LCM, and the two numbers is HCF � LCM = Product of the two numbers. Given HCF = 24, LCM = 288, and one number = 72, the other number is calculated as (24 � 288) / 72 = 96. Option D is correct because 24 � 288 = 6912, and 6912 / 72 = 96. Other options do not satisfy this relationship.

A number is divisible by 24 if it is divisible by both 3 and 8. For option D, 71,32,968: the last three digits 968 are divisible by 8 (968 ÷ 8 = 121), and the sum of digits (7+1+3+2+9+6+8 = 45) is divisible by 3. So, D is correct. Other options fail either the divisibility by 8 or 3.

Let Mary's age = M and Diya's age = D. From the problem: 2M = 6D + 20 and 5D = M - 6. Solving these equations: from the second equation, M = 5D + 6. Substitute into the first: 2(5D + 6) = 6D + 20 � 10D + 12 = 6D + 20 � 4D = 8 � D = 2. Then M = 5(2) + 6 = 16. The difference is 16 - 2 = 14. Option B is correct.

The selling price after a 13% discount is 87% of the marked price. 87% of ¹900 is calculated as 0.87 � 900 = 783. Option D correctly represents this calculation. Other options miscalculate the percentage or misapply the discount.

Increasing a number by 100% doubles it. Let the original number be x. Then x + 100% of x = 2x = 2730 � x = 2730 / 2 = 1365. Option A is correct as it directly follows from the percentage increase definition.

The area of the four walls = 2 � (length � height + breadth � height) = 2 � (10.5 � 11 + 8.5 � 11) = 2 � (115.5 + 93.5) = 2 � 209 = 418 m². Option A is correct. Other options likely result from incorrect calculations of the wall areas.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Speed, Distance, Time, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The question involves finding the LCM of numbers with missing digits. The correct approach is to identify the prime factors. The given numbers seem to be 12, 18, and another number. Breaking them down: 12 = 2² � 3, 18 = 2 � 3². The LCM would be the product of the highest powers of all primes: 2² � 3² = 36. However, the options suggest a different method, possibly involving the missing digits. Option D (2� � 3� � 7³) is stated as correct, implying the original numbers might have higher powers or additional prime factors not fully visible in the question's encoding. Key point: recognizing the LCM requires the highest exponent for each prime.

For a number to be divisible by 11, the difference between the sum of digits in odd positions and the sum in even positions must be 0 or a multiple of 11. The number N73M10 has positions: N(1), 7(2), 3(3), M(4), 1(5), 0(6). Calculating sums: Odd positions = N + 3 + 1 = N + 4; Even positions = 7 + M + 0 = M + 7. The difference is (N + 4) - (M + 7) = N - M - 3. For divisibility by 11, N - M - 3 must be 0 or ±11. The closest option is C: M - N = -3, which rearranges to N - M = 3, making the difference 0 and thus divisible by 11.

The series alternates between letter codes and numbers. Analyzing the pattern: KFU-15, IIQ-22, ?, EOI-42, CRE-55. The numbers increase by 7, then 11, suggesting a possible alternating increment or a different rule. The correct answer GLM-31 fits if the number pattern is +7, +9, +11, +13 (15 to 22 is +7, 22 to 31 is +9, 31 to 42 is +11, 42 to 55 is +13). The letter codes might follow a shift or positional pattern, but the key justification is the number sequence matching the increments leading to 31 for the missing term.

The task is to identify the odd one out based on a specific pattern. Options A, B, and C likely follow a consistent rule, such as each letter being a certain number of positions apart in the alphabet. For example, VX to AC: V(22) to A(1) is -21, X(24) to C(3) is -21. KM to PR: K(11) to P(16) is +5, M(13) to R(18) is +5. OQ to TV: O(15) to T(20) is +5, Q(17) to V(22) is +5. Option D, GI-LM, would need to follow the same pattern. G(7) to L(12) is +5, I(9) to M(13) is +4, which breaks the consistency, making D the odd one out.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Logical Arrangement, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The question involves identifying a pattern in given pairs and applying it to select the correct option. Key point: recognizing the relationship between elements in the pairs. Option A follows the same pattern as the given pairs, maintaining consistency in the sequence and transformation of characters. Other options deviate from this established pattern, making them incorrect.

First, subtract 1 from each odd digit in 86071452: 8 5 0 6 0 3 4 5. The new number is 85060345. Arranged in ascending order: 0,0,3,4,5,5,6,8. The repeated digits are 0, 5. Their sum is 0+0+5+5=10. Option D is correct as it accurately calculates the sum of repeated digits.

The equation involves a series where certain elements are interchanged. Key point: decoding the pattern after interchange. 84 is derived by applying the interchange rules to the given series and performing the necessary arithmetic operations. Other options do not align with the resulting calculation after interchange.

The question involves a coding pattern where specific phrases are translated into codes. Key point: understanding the substitution rules. 'jo' is the correct code for 'music' as per the given coding pattern. Other options correspond to different parts of the phrase, making them incorrect.

Mr. Maxi is 89th from the left, so his position from the right is 163-89+1=75th. Mr. Han is 2nd to the right of Mr. Maxi, so his position from the left is 89+2=91st. So, Mr. Han's position from the right is 163-91+1=73rd. Option D correctly calculates this position.

From the given conditions, A and D have four boxes between them, and F is above A. B and C have two boxes between them, and E is immediately above G. C is not above E. By deducing the arrangement, E must be below G and above C, with three boxes above E. Option C identifies this arrangement.

The statements provided are 'Some trees are plants' and 'Some plants are graphs'. Conclusion (I) 'Some trees are graphs' does not logically follow because there's no direct link between trees and graphs; the connection through plants is not guaranteed. Conclusion (II) 'All graphs are plants' also doesn't follow since the original statements only mention 'some', not 'all'. So, neither conclusion is valid, so option B is correct.

Original number: 3 8 5 1 7 6 4. Apply the operations: odd digits (3,5,7,1) +1 become 4,6,8,2; even digits (8,6,4) -2 become 6,4,2. New number: 4 6 6 2 8 4 2. Second from left is 6, second from right is 4. Sum: 6 + 4 = 10. Option A is correct.

The task is to count symbols that are between two numbers. Carefully examining the series: # 3 % 7 $ 5 * & 4 �f�'�?�?T�f�?��,½�f�'â�,�š�f�?s�,² 9 �f�'�?�?T�f�?��,½�f�'â�,�š�f�?s�,© 4 9 �f�'�?�?T�f�?��,½�f�'â�,�š�f�?s�,¼ 8 @ $ 1 �f�'�?�?T�f�?s�,��f�'�,¢�f¢â�?s¬�.¡�f�?s�,¬ 3. Identifying such symbols requires checking each position. The correct count is six, making option C the answer.

From the given conditions: V has three people to the left, so V is in position 4 (1-7). U has I to the right and three people between U and W. J is to the left of K but right of L. Arranging systematically: Positions 1-7. Fix V at 4. U must be at 1 (since only I is to the right of U, and three between U and W places W at 5). Then L must be to the left of J, who is left of K. The only arrangement that fits all conditions results in L at 2 and K at 6, with three people (positions 3,4,5) between them. So, option D is correct.

Original number: 3 6 7 1 9 5 4 2. Subtract 1 from even digits (6,4,2 � 5,3,1). New number: 3 5 7 1 9 5 3 1. Repeated digits: 5 (twice), 3 (twice), 1 (twice). Product: 5 * 3 * 1 = 15. Option C is correct.

Given the circular arrangement: B and F have three people between them. D and E have three between them from E's right. G is immediate right of D. C is neighbour of both E and F. Fixing positions: Let's place E and arrange others relative to E. Since C is next to E and F, and G is next to D, the arrangement will have L positioned such that second to the left of L is C. So, option A is correct.

First, identify the highest and lowest numbers from the given list (256, 987, 325, 489, 723). The highest is 987, and the lowest is 256. The second digit of 987 is 8, and the third digit of 256 is 6. Adding them: 8 + 6 = 14. Option B is correct. The other choices may result from selecting incorrect highest/lowest numbers or miscalculating digits.

Analyze the pattern between MKOJ and SQUP. Each letter in MKOJ is shifted forward by a certain number of positions: M�S (+6), K�Q (+6), O�U (+6), J�P (+6). Applying the same shift to KIMH: K�Q (+6), I�O (+6), M�S (+6), H�N (+6), resulting in QOSN. For HFJE: H�N (+6), F�L (+6), J�P (+6), E�K (+6), giving NLPK (Option D). Incorrect options may use inconsistent shifts.

Plot Alexander's movements: South 12 km, left (east) 4 km, left (north) 17 km, left (west) 9 km, left (south) 5 km. Net displacement: South (12 - 17 + 5) = 0 km, East (4 - 9) = -5 km (i.e., 5 km west). To return, he must go 5 km east. Option C is correct. The other choices may miscalculate net movement or direction.

Compare the letter pairs. IK-NG: I to K is +2, N to G is -7 (or +19 with wrap-around). FH-KD: F to H is +2, K to D is -9 (+17). CE-HA: C to E is +2, H to A is -7 (+19). MO-RL: M to O is +2, R to L is -5 (+21). MO-RL breaks the pattern of second pair shifts being -7/-9. Option D is correct.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Direction Sense, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Examine the pairs: EH-LC (E to L is +7, H to C is -5/+21), OR-VM (O to V is +9, R to M is -5/+21), LO-SJ (L to S is +6, O to J is -5/+21), JM-QG (J to Q is +7, M to G is -6/+20). JM-QG breaks the pattern as the second shift isn't -5/+21. Option D is correct.

The statements given are 'All beds are pillows' and 'Some beds are curtains'. Conclusion I states 'Some pillows are curtains', which follows because if some beds are curtains and all beds are pillows, then some pillows must be curtains. Conclusion II states 'Some curtains are beds', which directly follows from the second statement. Both conclusions are valid, so option A is correct. The other choices B, C, and D incorrectly dismiss one or both conclusions.

The pattern involves rotating the letters. For DIMS to SIDM, each letter moves one position forward in the alphabet (D�E, I�J, M�N, S�T), but here it's a rotation of the letters themselves. The correct sequence for COLT should follow a similar rotation: COLT � TOCL (shifted) � OLCT. Option B (FROG � GRFO � ROFG) matches this rotational logic. Other options do not maintain consistent letter rotation.

The series DKS, ELT, FMU, GNV follows a pattern where each letter increases by 3 in the alphabet: D�E (+1), K�L (+1), S�T (+1) for the first set, then each subsequent set increases the starting letter by 1 (E�F, L�M, T�U). Following this, the next set starts with H, so H + 3 = K, O + 3 = R, W + 3 = Z. However, the options provided suggest a different calculation: D to E is +1, K to L +1, S to T +1; then E to F, L to M, T to U; then F to G, M to N, U to V. The next should be G to H, N to O, V to W, making 'HOW' the correct answer (Option A).

The series is 4, 12, 28, 52, 84, ?. The pattern involves adding 8, then 16, then 24, then 32 (increasing by 8 each time): 4 + 8 = 12, 12 + 16 = 28, 28 + 24 = 52, 52 + 32 = 84. Following this, the next addition should be 40, making 84 + 40 = 124. Option A (124) is correct. Other options do not follow the incremental addition pattern.

The series is 14, 16, 20, 28, 44, ?. The pattern alternates between adding 2 and multiplying by a certain factor: 14 + 2 = 16, 16 + 4 = 20, 20 + 8 = 28, 28 + 16 = 44. The increments are doubling (2, 4, 8, 16), so the next step should be adding 32: 44 + 32 = 76. Option A is correct. Other options do not follow the doubling increment pattern.

The given sets (46, 41, 26) and (77, 72, 57) follow a pattern where the third number is the difference between the first and second (46 - 41 = 5, but 26 is 41 - 15; 77 - 72 = 5, 57 is 72 - 15). However, a clearer pattern is 46 - 20 = 26, 41 - 15 = 26; 77 - 20 = 57, 72 - 15 = 57. For option A (62, 57, 42): 62 - 20 = 42, 57 - 15 = 42, which matches the pattern. Other options do not maintain consistent differences.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The code language uses substitution where 'aj tj tr' corresponds to 'always on time' and 'lo tr mo' to 'time is precious'. The task is to identify the code of 'time', which appears in both phrases. In 'aj tj tr', 'tr' is part of 'time', and in 'lo tr mo', 'tr' is also associated with 'time'. So, 'tr' represents 'time', so option B is correct. Other options are parts of the substitution but do not directly code 'time'.

A is the brother of H, and H is the father of R, so A is the uncle of R. Since R is the daughter of M, M is the mother of R. G is the father of M, making G the grandfather of R. A, being H's brother and H being M's husband (as H is R's father and M is R's mother), makes A the brother of M's husband. So, A is M's husband's brother, corresponding to option D.

Let the original sales be x. After a 4% increase, it becomes 1.04x. Then, a 25% increase makes it 1.25 * 1.04x = 1.3x. Given 1.3x = 135200, solve for x: x = 135200 / 1.3 = 104000. Option D is correct as it correctly reverses the percentage changes. Other options incorrectly apply the percentages or miscalculate the original amount.

The Global Terrorism Index (GTI) is published by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP), an independent think tank. Option B is correct. The United Nations bodies listed (Options A, C, D) are involved in counter-terrorism efforts but do not publish the GTI. This checks awareness of prominent international reports and their publishers, a common topic in current affairs sections of exams like RRB NTPC.

This question examines geomorphology, specifically wind erosion features. A deflation hollow (Option C) is a depression formed by wind removing loose particles from the surface. Pediments (A) are sloping rock surfaces at the base of hills, playas (B) are dry lake beds, and inselbergs (D) are isolated rock hills. The key distinction is the formation process�wind erosion directly creates deflation hollows, making C correct.

Compare letter-clusters based on alphabetical positions. HJN (H=8, J=10, N=14), SUY (S=19, U=21, Y=25), EGL (E=5, G=7, L=12), XZD (X=24, Z=26, D=4). EGL doesn't follow the increasing order by 2, 5, then 7 (E to G is +2, G to L is +5), unlike others which have consistent gaps. Option C is correct.

The Gond community is a major tribal group primarily found in central India. Chhattisgarh (D) is well-known for its significant Gond population. Punjab (A) and Haryana (B) are more associated with agricultural communities like Jats, while Kerala (C) has tribal groups such as the Adivasis but not predominantly Gonds. For revision, link major tribes with their respective states for such questions.

The relationship between HCF, LCM, and the two numbers is given by HCF � LCM = Product of the two numbers. Given HCF = 28, LCM = 336, and one number = 112, we can find the other number by dividing (HCF � LCM) by the given number: 28 � 336 ÷ 112 = 84. So, the correct answer is 84. The other choices (56, 112, 140) do not satisfy this relationship when checked similarly.

This checks pattern recognition in letter-clusters. D (PG-KM) because the other options follow a pattern where the second letter of the first cluster is the first letter of the second cluster (e is the answer.g., NE-IL: E to I). PG-KM breaks this pattern, as G does not relate to K in the same way. This pattern recognition is key to identifying the odd one out.