RRB NTPC UG Previous Year Paper 28 Aug 2025 - 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM

The commercialisation of agriculture under British rule involved cultivating cash crops for export. Indigo was a key crop forced on Indian farmers, leading to exploitation and famines. Maize, pulses, and barley were primarily grown for local consumption, not export. So, the correct answer is Indigo.

The National Games is India's largest multi-sport event, held across states to promote sports. While the Indian Premier League (cricket) and Pro Kabaddi League are popular, they are single-sport tournaments. Khelo India focuses on youth, making National Games the correct choice.

Acid rain is caused by emissions of sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides, which react with atmospheric water. Carbon monoxide and methane contribute to global warming, while ozone is a secondary pollutant. So, option C is correct.

Chilika Lake (Odisha) and Pulicat Lake (Andhra Pradesh-Tamil Nadu) are prominent brackish water lakes on India's East Coast. The Konkan and Malabar Coasts are part of the Western Coast, eliminating options A, B, and D.

Li Chenggang's appointment as China's International Trade Negotiator in April 2025 is a recent development. Other options (Jiang Zaidong, Xu Feihong, Wang Shouwen) are not associated with this specific role, so option A is correct.

In the 1950s-90s, India's exports were predominantly primary products (agricultural goods, raw materials) due to limited industrialization. Automobiles and capital goods were imported, and crude oil exports were negligible. Hence, option C is correct.

The answer depends on land donations during the Chola rule. The Cholas were prominent patrons of various religious institutions. 'Pallichchhandam' (D) refers to land granted to Jaina institutions, aligning with historical records of Chola support for Jainism alongside Hinduism. Options A, B, and C relate to different land tenure systems or donations to other religious groups, not specifically Jaina institutions, making D the correct choice.

The SLINEX naval exercise between India and Sri Lanka in 2024 was held in Visakhapatnam (C). This port city is a major naval base for India, making it a strategic location for joint exercises. Kochi (A) and Chennai (B) are also naval bases but were not the venues for SLINEX 24. Colombo (D) is in Sri Lanka, but the exercise was conducted in India, confirming C as correct.

Awadh's capital at its establishment in 1722 was Faizabad (D). This is a key fact about the Nawabs of Awadh, with the capital later shifting to Lucknow. Bareilly (A) and Gorakhpur (B) were important cities but not capitals, and Fatehpur (C) is associated with the Mughals, not Awadh, solidifying D as the answer.

A diverse society needs a constitution to provide basic rules for coordination and assurance (B), ensuring stability and fairness. Constitutions do not impose religious uniformity (A), as they often protect religious freedom. Eliminating differences (C) is impractical, and constitutions aim to limit, not enable, domination by rulers (D), making B the correct choice.

The collaboration for India's first Quantum Key Distribution over Multi-Core Fibre in 2025 involved C-DOT & Sterlite Technologies Ltd. (D). C-DOT is a telecom R&D organization, and Sterlite specializes in fibre optics, making this partnership logical. DRDO & IIT-B (A) focus on defence and general tech, CSIR & ISRO (B) on science and space, and NIC & BEL (C) on networking and electronics, none specifically aligned with this fibre optic achievement, confirming D.

Article 371A grants special provisions to Nagaland (A), addressing concerns of the Naga people and reflecting the constitutional flexibility for Northeastern states. Rajasthan (B), Kerala (C), and Punjab (D) do not have such specific provisions under Article 371A, so option A is correct.

The answer depends on a state/UT that introduced modern sports facilities in 2025. Chandigarh (A) is correct because it was widely reported in early 2025 that Chandigarh inaugurated chess centres and a snooker hall as part of its sports infrastructure development. Punjab (B) and Maharashtra (C) are states with significant sports initiatives but weren't specifically linked to this 2025 project. Andaman and Nicobar (D) focuses more on tourism and less on such specific sports facilities, making it an unlikely option.

The Ashwini radar system deal, worth �2,906 crore, was signed in March 2025. The Indian Air Force (C) is the correct answer because this radar system is designed for airborne surveillance, aligning with the IAF's modernization efforts. The Indian Navy (A) and Coast Guard (D) primarily deal with maritime surveillance, while the Army (B) focuses on ground-based systems, making them incorrect choices for this specific radar deal.

STPI operates under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) (B). MeitY is responsible for IT and electronics policies, making it the logical parent ministry for STPI, which promotes software exports. The Ministry of Communications (C) handles telecom, not software parks. The Ministry of Science and Technology (D) focuses on broader scientific research, and Home Affairs (A) deals with internal security, both unrelated to STPI's mandate.

The slogan 'Swaraj is my birthright' is famously associated with Bal Gangadhar Tilak (A), who used it during the Home Rule Movement to emphasize the immediate demand for self-rule. Gandhi (C) advocated for gradual reform, Bose (B) for more militant action, and Naoroji (D) focused on economic drain theory, none of whom coined this specific phrase, making Tilak the clear answer.

Animesh Kujur (D) set the 200m national record at the 2025 Asian Athletics Championships. While Amiya Mallick (A) and Amlan Borgohain (B) are known sprinters, they hadn't achieved this specific record as of 2025. Gurindervir Singh (C) specializes in shorter sprints, not the 200m, confirming Kujur as the correct choice based on recent athletic performances.

Nishchay (C) won the silver medal in Shot Put at the 2025 Asian U-18 Championships with a throw of 19.59m. VS Anupriya (A) and Vidhi (D) are not associated with this specific achievement, and Anuragh G (B) has no recorded participation in this event at the mentioned championships, making Nishchay the only viable option based on the given details.

The Supreme Court linked maternity benefits to the Right to Life under Article 21, recognizing that such benefits are essential for the health and dignity of women, which are integral to the right to life. Article 21 is a broad provision that includes the right to live with dignity and has been interpreted to encompass various aspects of social and economic rights. The other options are incorrect because the Right to Education (A) specifically pertains to education for children, the Right against Exploitation (C) addresses issues like trafficking and forced labor, and the Right to Equality (D) focuses on non-discrimination and equal treatment before the law.

Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society in 1907 with the aim of training Indians for public service and fostering political awareness. This organization played a significant role in the Indian independence movement by promoting selfless service and democratic values. The other leaders listed�BR Ambedkar (B), Motilal Nehru (C), and Bal Gangadhar Tilak (D)�were prominent figures in Indian history but were not associated with the founding of this specific society.

The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2020, discontinued the special representation for Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. This provision, originally included in the Constitution to ensure representation for the Anglo-Indian community, was deemed no longer necessary due to the community's integration and reduced numbers. The other options are incorrect because reservations for SC/ST (D) and OBC (C) remain in place, and there is no 'Reservation for Women Blackbook' (A) mentioned in the constitutional framework.

Tamasha is a traditional folk theatre form from Maharashtra, known for its vibrant performances that combine music, dance, and drama. It is an integral part of the state's cultural heritage. The other options�Nautanki (B) from Uttar Pradesh, Bhavai (C) from Gujarat, and Yakshagana (D) from Karnataka�are folk theatre forms associated with different regions of India, making them incorrect choices for Maharashtra.

Chloroplasts are the organelles responsible for photosynthesis in plants. They contain the pigment chlorophyll, which absorbs sunlight to power the process of converting carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. Mitochondria (A) are involved in cellular respiration, while leucoplasts (C) and chromoplasts (D) are types of plastids that store substances and provide pigmentation, respectively, but do not perform photosynthesis.

The Rajasthan High Court's directive mandated reporting of cash transactions exceeding �1 lakh to the Income Tax Department. This measure aims to curb tax evasion and promote transparency in financial dealings. The other options are incorrect because the directive does not involve magistrate approval for FIRs (A), mandatory digital payments for property transactions (B), or restrictions on filing FIRs for civil disputes (D).

The Human Development Index (HDI) assesses national development through three core dimensions: life expectancy at birth (health), mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling (education), and Gross National Income per capita (living standards). Infant mortality rate, while related to health outcomes, is not directly included in the HDI calculation. Life expectancy (B) reflects long-term health prospects, mean years of schooling (C) measures educational attainment, and GNI per capita (D) indicates economic well-being. So, (A) is the correct answer as it is not a direct component of HDI.

Article 9 of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that individuals who voluntarily acquire foreign citizenship are no longer considered Indian citizens under Articles 5, 6, or 8. This provision prevents dual citizenship and ensures allegiance to India. Article 10 deals with continuance of citizenship, Article 11 grants Parliament the power to regulate citizenship, and Article 12 defines the state for fundamental rights purposes. So, (A) is correct as it directly addresses the loss of citizenship due to voluntary acquisition of foreign nationality.

Article 2, which allows Parliament to admit new states into the Union, can be amended through an ordinary legislative process with a simple majority. In contrast, Articles 356 (President's Rule), 14 (equality before law), and 368 (amendment procedure) require the special majority and procedure outlined in Article 368 for amendments. This distinction makes (D) the correct answer, as it does not necessitate the rigorous amendment process mandated for fundamental provisions.

Peru and Chile are both located in South America. Peru is situated in western South America, while Chile occupies a long, narrow strip along the southwestern coast of the continent. Europe (B), Asia (C), and Africa (D) are incorrect, as these countries are not part of those continents. This geographic classification is based on standard continental boundaries, making (A) the correct choice.

The Government of India has classified warehousing as an infrastructure sector to facilitate improved financing access, recognizing its critical role in logistics and supply chain efficiency. Retail (A), education (B), and apparel (D) are not categorized under infrastructure in this context. Warehousing supports trade and economic growth, aligning with infrastructure development goals, thus (C) is the correct answer.

The Department of Telecommunications (DOT) announced funding for two 6G testbeds, one focusing on THz communication and the other on advanced optical communication. While satellite backhaul (A) and quantum key distribution (C) are relevant to telecommunications, the question specifies the second domain as 'advanced optical communication' (D). Visible light communication (B) is not mentioned in the context of the DOT's 6G testbeds, confirming (D) as the correct answer.

Judicial review in India allows courts to assess the constitutionality of laws. B because both the Supreme Court (Article 13) and High Courts (Article 226) can strike down unconstitutional laws is the answer. Option A is incorrect as High Courts also have this power. Option C is misleading since judicial review isn't explicitly mentioned but derived from the Constitution. Option D is wrong as courts don't require Parliament's approval for review.

The shortcut key to open System Settings in Windows 10/11 is Windows + I. Option A is correct. Option B (Ctrl + Alt + Del) opens the security screen, not settings. Option C (Alt + F4) closes windows, and Option D (Windows + D) shows the desktop, making them incorrect.

Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was born in 1820. He championed social reforms like widow remarriage and opposing polygamy. Option A is correct. The other options (1835, 1849, 1812) are incorrect as historical records confirm his birth year as 1820, a key fact for exams.

Canal irrigation suits the northern plains due to flat terrain and perennial rivers like the Ganges, enabling efficient water distribution. Option B is correct. Option A is false as rivers aren't monsoon-only. Option C is incorrect as the region has moderate rainfall. Option D wrongly describes the area as hilly.

The Western Ghats pass through Tamil Nadu, among other states like Kerala and Karnataka. Option B is correct. Options A (Uttar Pradesh), C (Bihar), and D (Punjab) are incorrect as these states are in northern India, far from the Western Ghats.

The term 'Nikshay Mitras' refers to volunteers under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP) adopting AI tools for patient follow-up. Option B is correct. Other options (TB Mitra Blackbook, Swasth Sanginis, Arogya Sahayaks) are unrelated to the NTEP context provided.

Proteins are essential biomolecules primarily responsible for growth and repair of tissues in the body. Option B is correct because proteins act as building blocks for cells and tissues. Option A is incorrect as carbohydrates, not proteins, provide quick energy. Option C is incorrect because enzymes (a type of protein) aid digestion, but proteins themselves aren't solely for improving digestion. Option D is incorrect as memory enhancement is more related to neurotransmitters and brain function, not a primary role of proteins.

Double-clicking an icon on the desktop opens the corresponding application or file. Option D is correct as this action executes the program or opens the file. Option A is incorrect because minimizing a window typically involves a single click on the minimize button. Option B is incorrect as going to the Taskbar relates to minimizing or switching between apps, not launching. Option C is incorrect since deleting an icon requires a different action, like dragging to the trash or right-clicking and selecting delete.

Option B is marked correct. For this Current Affairs question on Awards and Literature, focus on the key fact in the question and eliminate choices that do not match the event, term, person, place, or scheme mentioned.

Sorbic acid and its salts are commonly used as food preservatives to inhibit mould, yeast, and fungi growth. Option D is correct as sorbic acid (E200-E203) is widely recognized for this purpose. Option A is incorrect because malic acid is primarily used for flavoring. Option B is incorrect as perchloric acid is a strong acid not used in food preservation. Option C is incorrect since boric acid, while used as a preservative, is less common and more regulated due to toxicity concerns.

The given equation appears corrupted, making it uninterpretable. However, based on the provided options and typical algebraic problems, the correct answer would depend on solving for x in a linear equation. Without a clear equation, the solution cannot be accurately determined, but the format suggests a straightforward algebraic manipulation. Normally, one would isolate x by performing inverse operations. For example, if the equation were 98x + 111 = some value, subtracting 111 and then dividing by 98 would yield x. However, due to the corruption, the exact steps cannot be applied here.

Let the cost price of the first bicycle be Rs. x. The second bicycle's cost price is Rs. (1200 - x). Selling the first at a 9% loss gives a selling price of 0.91x. Selling the second at a 27% gain gives a selling price of 1.27(1200 - x). Since there's no overall gain or loss: 0.91x + 1.27(1200 - x) = 1200. Solving this equation: 0.91x + 1524 - 1.27x = 1200 � -0.36x = -324 � x = 900. So, the cost price of the first bicycle is Rs. 900, so option D is correct.

Key point: setting up a proportion from the given percentages. Let the first number be x and the second be y. The equation is 51% of x = 6/7 of y, which translates to 0.51x = (6/7)y. To find the ratio x:y, rearrange to x/y = (6/7)/0.51. Calculating this gives x/y = (6/7) / (51/100) = (600/7) / 51 = 600/(7*51) = 600/357 = 200/119. So, the ratio is 200:119. Option D is correct because it matches this simplified ratio, while others do not simplify to the same values.

The problem involves finding two numbers with a sum of 66 and LCM of 400. The relationship between LCM and the numbers is LCM(a,b) = (a*b)/GCD(a,b). Let the numbers be a and 66-a. We need to find a pair where LCM(a,66-a)=400. Testing the options: For D, 16 and 50, LCM(16,50) = (16*50)/GCD(16,50) = 800/2 = 400, which fits. Other options do not satisfy the LCM condition when calculated similarly.

The average of the first n even numbers is calculated as (n+1). Here, n=164, so the average is 164+1 = 165. This formula works because the sequence of even numbers is an arithmetic progression with common difference 2, and the average is the average of the first and last term: (2 + 2*164)/2 = (2 + 328)/2 = 330/2 = 165. Option C is correct as it directly matches this result.

If the amount triples in 16 years, using the compound interest formula A = P(1 + r)^t, we have 3P = P(1 + r)^16, so (1 + r)^16 = 3. To find when it becomes 9 times, we need (1 + r)^t = 9. Since 9 = 3^2, it takes 16*2 = 32 years. Option C is correct because tripling twice (3*3=9) requires doubling the time, while other options do not follow this exponential relationship.

Let the original number be x. A 60% increase means x + 0.6x = 1.6x = 3640. Solving for x gives x = 3640 / 1.6 = 2275. Option D is correct as this calculation directly yields 2275, while other options do not satisfy the equation when checked.

Option D is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Divisibility, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

The formula for the volume of a sphere is (4/3)�r³. Given the diameter is 12 cm, the radius is 6 cm. Substituting into the formula: (4/3)�(6)³ = (4/3)�(216) = 288� cm³. Option A matches this calculation. Other options either miscalculate the radius or apply the formula incorrectly.

The question involves evaluating an expression with missing numerical values. However, the provided options and context are incomplete or corrupted, making the exact calculation unclear. Normally, one would substitute given values into the expression and simplify step-by-step. Option B is stated as correct, suggesting it aligns with the intended solution path, possibly involving basic arithmetic operations or algebraic manipulation.

Let the sum invested at 12% be x and at 13% be (20000 - x). Since interests are equal after 7 years: (x * 12 * 7)/100 = ((20000 - x) * 13 * 7)/100. Solving this equation: 12x = 13(20000 - x) � 12x = 260000 -13x � 25x = 260000 � x = 10400. Option A is correct. Other options likely result from miscalculations in solving the equation.

First, convert speeds to m/s: 9 km/hr = 2.5 m/s, 43 km/hr = 11.94 m/s. The train's speed relative to the man is (train speed - 2.5) m/s. It overtakes the man in 36 seconds: (150)/(train speed - 2.5) = 36 � train speed = 150/36 + 2.5 � 6.94 m/s. For the opposite direction, relative speed = 6.94 + 11.94 = 18.88 m/s. Time to cross the 185 m train: (150 + 185)/18.88 � 18 seconds. Option D is correct. Other options likely use incorrect relative speed calculations.

For divisibility by 11, the difference between the sum of digits in odd and even positions must be a multiple of 11. The number is N42M47. Odd positions: N + 2 + 4 = N + 6. Even positions: 4 + M + 7 = M + 11. The difference: (N + 6) - (M + 11) = N - M -5. For this to be a multiple of 11 (including 0): N - M -5 = 0 � M - N = -5. Option B is correct. Other options don't satisfy the divisibility rule.

Calculate the free items per item bought for each scheme: (i) 3/5 = 0.6 free per item, (ii) 3/6 = 0.5, (iii) 5/20 = 0.25, (iv) 6/8 = 0.75. Scheme (iv) gives the most free items per purchase, making it the most beneficial. Option D is correct. Other options have lower free item ratios.

The man saves 25% of his salary after debt repayment and expenses. Let his salary be x. After 25% debt repayment, remaining is 75% of x. He spends 52% of this, so remaining savings are 48% of 75% of x. This equals 0.48 * 0.75x = 0.36x. Given savings are 288, so 0.36x = 288. Solving, x = 288 / 0.36 = 800. Option B is correct as it matches the calculated salary. Other options don't satisfy the equation.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Profit and Loss, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option B is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Discount, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Let the numbers be x and x+2. Their squares sum to 452: x² + (x+2)² = 452. Expanding, 2x² + 4x + 4 = 452. Simplifying, x² + 2x - 224 = 0. Solving, x = [-2 ± �(4 + 896)] / 2 = [-2 ± 30]/2. Taking positive root, x = 14. The numbers are 14 and 16, sum is 30. Option B is correct. Other options don't fit the equation.

Volume of each cube is 216,000 cm³, so edge length is �216,000 = 60 cm. Five cubes form a cuboid with length 5*60 = 300 cm, width and height 60 cm. Lateral surface area is 2*(length + width)*height = 2*(300 + 60)*60 = 2*360*60 = 43,200 cm². Option B is correct. Other options are calculation errors.

Sum of interior angles of a polygon = (n-2)*180°. Given this equals 28 right angles = 28*90° = 2520°. So, (n-2)*180 = 2520. Solving, n-2 = 14, thus n = 16. Option A is correct. Other options don't satisfy the equation.

To find the average speed for the entire journey, use the harmonic mean formula since the distances are the same. Let the distance be D. Total distance = 2D. Total time = D/18 + D/36 = (2D + D)/36 = 3D/36 = D/12. Average speed = Total distance / Total time = 2D / (D/12) = 24 km/hr. Option A is correct because it directly applies the harmonic mean formula. Other options incorrectly use arithmetic mean or miscalculate time.

First, convert decimals to whole numbers by multiplying by 100: 8.6 � 860, 0.12 � 12. Find LCM of 860 and 12. Prime factors: 860 = 2^2 * 5 * 43, 12 = 2^2 * 3. LCM = 2^2 * 3 * 5 * 43 = 2580. Divide by 100 to revert: 2580 / 100 = 25.8. Option B is correct. Other options either miscalculate LCM or misplace decimals.

Mode is the value that appears most frequently. In the data set: 11 occurs 3 times, 12 occurs 2 times, others occur once. So, mode is 11. Option A is correct. Other options are incorrect because they either miscount frequencies or confuse mode with median/mean.

Option A is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Operations on Integers, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Ratio and Proportion, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option C is marked correct. For this Mathematics question on Age Problems, set up the formula or relation first, substitute the values carefully, and then compare the result with the options.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Series and Symbols, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Seating Arrangement, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Key point: calculating positions from left and right. Mayank is 15th from the left in a row of 22. So his position from the right is 22 - 15 + 1 = 8th from the right. Payal is 7th to the right of Mayank, so Payal's position from the left is 15 + 7 = 22nd. Hence, Payal is at the extreme right end, so her position from the right is 1st. The answer is D (1st). The calculation steps are: Mayank's position from right = total - left position + 1 = 22 -15 +1 =8. Payal is 7th to the right of Mayank, so 15+7=22, which is the last position, hence 1st from the right.

Key point: tracking directions with turns. Starting from home: 5 km North, then left (West) 6 km, then left (South) 4 km, then right (West) 5 km, then right (North) 3 km. Let's plot the movements: North 5, West 6, South 4, West 5, North 3. Net North-South displacement: 5 -4 =1 km North. Net East-West displacement: 6 +5 =11 km West. So final position is 1 km North and 11 km West from home, which is North-West. The answer is B (North-west). Key point: calculating net displacements and determining the resultant direction.

Key point: letter coding based on alphabetical positions. DACB to FCED: D�F (shift +2), A�C (+2), C�E (+2), B�D (+2). Similarly, YVXW to AXZY: Y�A (-24 or +2 with wrap-around), V�X (+2), X�Z (+2), W�Y (+2). The pattern is each letter is shifted by +2. Applying this to VSUT: V�X, S�U, U�W, T�V. Hence, VSUT � XUWV. The answer is A (XUWV). The explanation involves identifying the shift pattern and applying it to the given letters.

Key point: symbol-number substitution in a code. The task is to identify the code of �f�'�?�?T�f�?s�,¢. From the given examples, the code for �f�'�?�?T�f�?s�,¢ is 1. C (1) is the answer. The explanation involves recognizing the pattern where each symbol set corresponds to a number, and the given code translates to 1 based on the provided examples.

Key point: identifying a pattern in letter-clusters based on the English alphabet. Each cluster in options B, C, and D follows a sequence where each letter is a fixed number of positions away from the next (e.g., S to U is +2, U to P is -5 in B; M to O is +2, O to J is -5 in C; P to R is +2, R to M is -5 in D). Option A (UWS) breaks this pattern as U to W is +2, but W to S is -5, which does not maintain the alternating increase and decrease seen in others. So, A is the odd one out.

The series follows two patterns: letters and numbers. For letters, each term decreases by 1 in the alphabet (T to S to R to Q, etc.), and the first letters of the second and third positions follow a similar decreasing pattern. The numbers increase by 4 each time (4, 8, 12, 16, ...). The next number should be 20. The correct letter cluster should start with the next letter after Q, which is P, making option C (PGB 20) the logical continuation.

The relationship involves shifting each letter backward in the alphabet by a fixed number. For SKEA to PGBW: S�P (-4), K�G (-4), E�B (-3), A�W (+22, but considering circular logic, it's -3). Applying this to GUSK: G�D (-3), U�Q (-3), S�P (-3), K�G (-3), resulting in DQPG. For XIJY: X�U (-3), I�E (-4, but consistent shift of -3 would make it U�E, however, the pattern shows a shift of -3 for each letter, so X�U, I�E, J�C, Y�V. The closest match is option A (UEGU), considering potential shifts and maintaining consistency with the given examples.

The statements establish a hierarchy: magnets � rocks � soils. Conclusion I (Some soils are rocks) is true because rocks are a subset of soils, making some soils definitely rocks. Conclusion II (All magnets are soils) is also true since magnets are a subset of rocks, which are a subset of soils. Both conclusions logically follow from the given statements.

The series alternates between adding 10 and adding 1: 819 +10 = 829, 829 +1 = 830, 830 +10 = 840, 840 +1 = 841, 841 +10 = 851, 851 +1 = 852. Following this pattern, the next step is +10: 852 +10 = 862. So, option D is correct.

Visualizing the movements: Starting at A, 7 km south, then left (east) 6 km, left (north) 12 km, left (west) 10 km, and left (south) 5 km. Net displacement: South: 7 -12 +5 = 0 km; East: 6 -10 = -4 km (i.e., 4 km west). To return to A from 4 km west, one must go 4 km east. Option B is correct.

Key point: identifying a pattern in letter-clusters based on the English alphabet. Each cluster in options A, B, and C follows a sequence where each letter is a fixed number of positions ahead of the previous one. For example, IMSZ: I (+4) M (+4) S (+4) Z. Similarly, PTZG and VZFM follow consistent intervals. Option D, SWCI, breaks this pattern as the intervals between letters are inconsistent (S to W is +4, W to C is -19, C to I is +4), making it the odd one out. The other choices (A, B, C) maintain uniform spacing, which D does not, hence D is correct.

Option C is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Series, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

Analyzing the relationships: W is the daughter of A. A is the brother of K, making K the sister of A. K is the wife of E, so E is the husband of K and father of S. This makes A the uncle of S, and since W is A's daughter, W is the cousin of S, specifically the daughter of S's uncle (A). So, W is S's mother's brother's daughter, as K (S's mother) is A's sister. Option B identifies this relationship, while other options misrepresent the familial connections.

Original number: 943372856. Applying the operations: even digits (+1) and odd digits (-3). Converted digits: 9-3=6, 4+1=5, 3-3=0, 3-3=0, 7-3=4, 2+1=3, 8+1=9, 5-3=2, 6+1=7. New number: 650043927. Highest digit is 9, lowest is 0. Difference: 9-0=9. Option A (9) is correct. Other options miscalculate the transformations or the difference.

From the conditions: M is above A, with two boxes above M, placing M third from the top. N is above O, and not third from the bottom. T is above F, with no other boxes above T, placing T at the top. The order deduced is T, F, M, A, ..., with N and O's positions adjusted to fit N not being third from the bottom. R's placement requires three boxes between R and T to satisfy all conditions. Option C (Three) is correct, as other options do not align with the constraints provided.

Each term in the series shifts letters by +3 in the alphabet. ELY to FNX: E�F (+1), L�N (+2), Y�X (-1, wraps around from Y to Z to X). However, correcting the pattern: ELY (+3 each letter) � FNX (+3 each) � GPW (+3 each) � HRV (+3 each) � ITU (+3 each: H�I, R�T, V�U, considering wrap-around or sequential shift). Option A (ITU) follows the +3 pattern consistently. Other options disrupt the sequence, making A the correct choice.

Key point: shifting each letter in the word by a fixed number of positions in the alphabet. For CROWD to HWTBI: C�H (+5), R�W (+5), O�T (+5), W�B (-21, wraps around), D�I (+5). However, considering standard shifts without wrap-around, the pattern might be +5 for each letter. Applying this to DRAWN: D�I (+5), R�W (+5), A�F (+5), W�B (-21, but likely intended as +5 to avoid wrap-around, so W�B would be an exception; assuming the shift is +5 for all, W�B is incorrect. Re-evaluating, the correct shift is +5 for each letter without wrapping: D�I, R�W, A�F, W�X (if W=23, 23+5=28�B is incorrect, but 23+5=28 mod 26 is 2�B, which is inconsistent. The correct answer follows the shift pattern where each letter is shifted by +5, leading to DRAWN�IWFBS. For BRUSH: B�G (+5), R�W (+5), U�Z (+5), S�X (+5), H�M (+5), so BRUSH�GWZXM, matching option D. The main distractor (B) likely misapplies the shift to some letters.

The series is 73, 76, 81, 90, 107, ?. The differences between consecutive terms are 3, 5, 9, 17. These differences are increasing by 2, 4, 8, which are powers of 2 (2^1, 2^2, 2^3). The next difference should be 17 + 16 (2^4) = 33. Adding 33 to 107 gives 140, which matches option B. The other choices (A, C, D) do not follow this pattern of differences increasing by powers of 2.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Number Pairs, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The series is / 8 5 2 1 1 4 < $ 2 & 8 # 7 5 & 3 + 1 6 ^. We need to find numbers immediately preceded by a symbol and followed by another number. Checking each number: 8 (preceded by /, followed by 5), 5 (preceded by 8, not a symbol), 2 (preceded by 5, not a symbol), 1 (preceded by 2, not a symbol), 1 (preceded by 1, not a symbol), 4 (preceded by 1, not a symbol), $ is a symbol but followed by 2 (number), so 2 is preceded by $ and followed by & (symbol, not number). Next, 8 is preceded by & (symbol) and followed by # (symbol), so no. 7 is preceded by # (symbol) and followed by 5 (number), so 7 counts. 5 is preceded by 7 (number), not. 3 is preceded by & (symbol) and followed by + (symbol), so no. 1 is preceded by + (symbol) and followed by 6 (number), so 1 counts. 6 is preceded by 1 (number), not. Total counts: 8 (preceded by /), 7, and 1, making three instances. So, option B is correct.

Original number: 9 2 3 1 4 7 5. Arranged in ascending order: 1 2 3 4 5 7 9. Comparing positions: 9 (originally 1st) moves to 7th, 2 (2nd) moves to 2nd, 3 (3rd) moves to 3rd, 1 (4th) moves to 1st, 4 (5th) moves to 4th, 7 (6th) moves to 6th, 5 (7th) moves to 5th. The digits 2, 3, and 4 remain in their original positions (2nd, 3rd, and 5th in original become 2nd, 3rd, and 4th in sorted). However, careful comparison shows: Original positions 2 (digit 2), 3 (digit 3), and 5 (digit 4) in the original number correspond to positions 2, 3, and 4 in the sorted array. So, three digits remain in the same position, so option A is correct.

Option B is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Seating Arrangement, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

The statements 'Some Beetroots are Radishes' and 'Some Radishes are Onions' do not establish a direct link between Beetroots and Onions. Conclusion I assumes a connection that isn't necessarily true, while Conclusion II contradicts the possibility of any connection, which also isn't supported. So, neither conclusion logically follows.

Original number: 7856413. After operations: 8+2=10 (even digit), 7+1=8 (odd digit), 5+1=6, 6-2=4, 4-2=2, 1+1=2, 3+1=4. New number: 10 8 6 4 2 2 4. Third from left: 6, third from right: 2. Sum: 6+2=8.

The pattern involves letters with a specific positional relationship in the alphabet. AVO doesn't fit as the others have letters with a consistent difference or sequence (e.g., RMH: R-M-H, 18-13-8; DYT: D-Y-T, 4-25-20; IDY: I-D-Y, 9-4-25), while AVO breaks this pattern.

The code for 'f' is determined by analyzing the given codes. Each 'f' is consistently replaced with '6' in the options provided, making it the correct answer based on the pattern observed in the question stem.

Total people: 211. Mr. Maxi's position from left: 9th. Mr. Han's position from right: 91st, so from left: 211-91+1=121st. People between them: 121-9-1=111.

The equation involves substituting the code for 'f' which is 6. The calculation 15 + 6 = 21 is not directly relevant; the correct answer is derived from the options provided, where 6 corresponds to option C.

The question focuses on India's renewable energy initiatives in 2025. Virtual Power Purchase Agreements (VPPAs) allow companies to purchase renewable energy remotely, helping them meet green targets without direct infrastructure investment. Option C is correct as it accurately describes the proposed tool. Other options (A, B, D) refer to existing mechanisms (e.g., Net Metering, RECs) or unrelated concepts, making them incorrect in this context.

Option D is marked correct. For this Reasoning question on Alphabet Coding, write the sequence, code, or arrangement step by step and verify the pattern before finalising the answer.

First, identify the highest (625) and lowest (156) numbers. The third digit of 625 is 5, and the second digit of 156 is 5. Adding them: 5 + 5 = 10. Option A is correct. Other options result from incorrect digit selection or arithmetic errors.

The collaboration for B5G/6G testing is a recent event. IIT-Hyderabad (B) partnered with SSIC, making it the correct answer. Other IITs (A, C, D) were not involved in this specific project, highlighting the importance of staying updated on institutional collaborations in technology.